Maternal Disorders

Maternal Disorders Related

Review Maternal Disorders related questions and content

A client has severe preeclampsia. The nurse would expect the primary health care practitioner to order tests to assess the fetus for which of the following?

  • A. Severe anemia.'
  • B. Hypoprothrombinemia.'
  • C. Craniosynostosis.'
  • D. Intrauterine growth restriction.'
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). In severe preeclampsia, there is a risk of placental insufficiency leading to reduced blood flow to the fetus, resulting in IUGR. The primary concern is monitoring the fetus's growth and well-being.

A: Severe anemia is not typically a direct result of severe preeclampsia and is not a primary concern in this situation.
B: Hypoprothrombinemia refers to a deficiency in blood clotting factors and is not directly related to fetal well-being in the context of severe preeclampsia.
C: Craniosynostosis is a condition where the bones in an infant's skull fuse too early, which is a congenital issue and not typically related to preeclampsia.

In summary, the primary concern in severe preeclampsia is assessing fetal growth and well-being due to placental insufficiency, making IUG

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The correct injection technique for infants of mothers who are known carriers of hepatitis B virus is to:

  • A. Avoid all intramuscular injections until 1 month of age
  • B. Dilute intramuscular injections with added normal saline
  • C. Mix all injections that the infant will need in a single syringe
  • D. Bathe the area where the infant will receive injections
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because infants born to mothers who are known carriers of hepatitis B virus should receive the hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. Delaying intramuscular injections until 1 month of age increases the risk of vertical transmission of the virus. Choice B is incorrect because diluting injections with normal saline is unnecessary and may compromise the effectiveness of the vaccine. Choice C is incorrect as mixing all injections in a single syringe can lead to contamination and inaccurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as bathing the injection site does not prevent vertical transmission of the virus.

The nurse is teaching a sex education class to teenage girls. The nurse informs them that which age group should receive a vaccination to prevent HPV infection?

  • A. 13-29
  • B. 12-26
  • C. 9-26
  • D. 7-20
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (9-26) because the HPV vaccine is recommended for both males and females between the ages of 9 and 26. Vaccination at a younger age provides the best protection before exposure to the virus. Choices A, B, and D include age ranges outside the recommended vaccination window, making them incorrect options.

A nurse working in a community clinic is teaching a client about chlamydia. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for further instruction?

  • A. Treatment is also required for individuals who are asymptomatic.
  • B. Individuals can only spread the infection if symptomatic.
  • C. All pregnant women should be screened for chlamydia.
  • D. Any sexually active individuals can be infected with chlamydia.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is incorrect. Chlamydia can be spread by individuals who are asymptomatic, so the statement that individuals can only spread it if symptomatic is inaccurate. Asymptomatic individuals can still transmit the infection to others. Therefore, this statement indicates a need for further instruction. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements. Treatment is necessary for asymptomatic individuals to prevent complications, pregnant women should be screened for chlamydia to prevent transmission to the baby, and any sexually active individuals can indeed be infected with chlamydia.

An absence of what may facilitate the occurrence of bacterial vaginosis?

  • A. Antibodies
  • B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
  • C. Gardnerella vaginalis
  • D. Vaginal mucosa
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Lactobacillus acidophilus

Rationale: Lactobacillus acidophilus is a beneficial bacteria that helps maintain the acidic pH of the vagina, inhibiting the growth of harmful bacteria like Gardnerella vaginalis. An absence of Lactobacillus acidophilus can disrupt the vaginal microbiota balance, allowing for the overgrowth of harmful bacteria and leading to bacterial vaginosis.

Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Antibodies - Antibodies play a role in the immune response but are not directly related to the occurrence of bacterial vaginosis.
C: Gardnerella vaginalis - Gardnerella vaginalis is a bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis, not its absence.
D: Vaginal mucosa - The integrity of the vaginal mucosa is important for protection, but its absence would not directly facilitate bacterial vaginosis.

The client calls the nurse and states she has not had a menstrual cycle in 3 months. What does the nurse know is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

  • A. Weight loss
  • B. Pregnancy
  • C. Cancer
  • D. Menopause
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy. In the case of secondary amenorrhea, where a woman stops menstruating after previously having regular cycles, pregnancy is the most common cause. Pregnancy leads to a halt in the menstrual cycle due to hormonal changes to support the developing fetus. Other choices are incorrect: A) Weight loss can affect menstruation but is not the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea. C) Cancer can also disrupt the menstrual cycle, but it is not the primary cause in this scenario. D) Menopause typically occurs in women in their late 40s to early 50s, and would not be the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a younger woman.

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