Nokea
A client with a history of herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) infection asks the nurse about future sexual activity. Which response is most appropriate?
- A. If the infection has healed, you do not have to use a condom.
- B. Refrain from all sexual activity.
- C. Use a condom during sexual activity only if the infection becomes active again.
- D. Inform all potential sexual partners about the infection, even if it is inactive.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. Informing all potential sexual partners about the HSV-2 infection, even if inactive, is crucial to ensure transparency and promote informed decision-making.
2. HSV-2 can be transmitted even when symptoms are not present, so partners need to be aware of the risk.
3. This approach demonstrates respect for the partners' autonomy and enables them to make choices regarding their own health.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Using a condom is important even when the infection is inactive to prevent transmission.
B: Incorrect. Refraining from all sexual activity may not be necessary if proper precautions are taken.
C: Incorrect. Using a condom only when the infection is active does not fully address the risk of transmission during asymptomatic periods.
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The client calls the nurse and states she has not had a menstrual cycle in 3 months. What does the nurse know is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Pregnancy
- C. Cancer
- D. Menopause
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy. In the case of secondary amenorrhea, where a woman stops menstruating after previously having regular cycles, pregnancy is the most common cause. Pregnancy leads to a halt in the menstrual cycle due to hormonal changes to support the developing fetus. Other choices are incorrect: A) Weight loss can affect menstruation but is not the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea. C) Cancer can also disrupt the menstrual cycle, but it is not the primary cause in this scenario. D) Menopause typically occurs in women in their late 40s to early 50s, and would not be the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a younger woman.
A nurse working in a community clinic is teaching a client about chlamydia. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for further instruction?
- A. Treatment is also required for individuals who are asymptomatic.
- B. Individuals can only spread the infection if symptomatic.
- C. All pregnant women should be screened for chlamydia.
- D. Any sexually active individuals can be infected with chlamydia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is incorrect. Chlamydia can be spread by individuals who are asymptomatic, so the statement that individuals can only spread it if symptomatic is inaccurate. Asymptomatic individuals can still transmit the infection to others. Therefore, this statement indicates a need for further instruction. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements. Treatment is necessary for asymptomatic individuals to prevent complications, pregnant women should be screened for chlamydia to prevent transmission to the baby, and any sexually active individuals can indeed be infected with chlamydia.
A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation discovers she is HPV positive at her prenatal visit. Upon examination, her provider detects genital warts. Which treatment is not recommended in this case?
- A. Carbon dioxide laser surgery
- B. Electrocautery
- C. Surgical excision
- D. Podophyllin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Podophyllin. It is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential teratogenic effects. Carbon dioxide laser surgery, electrocautery, and surgical excision can be considered safer options for treating genital warts during pregnancy. Podophyllin should be avoided to prevent harm to the developing fetus.
Which should the nurse recommend to the client to relieve premenstrual syndrome (PMS) symptoms? Select all that apply.
- A. NSAIDs to decrease pain
- B. Exercise 5 to 6 times a week
- C. Decrease caffeine
- D. Decrease fiber
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decrease fiber intake. High-fiber foods can worsen bloating and digestive issues associated with PMS. By reducing fiber intake, gas and bloating can be minimized, alleviating these symptoms. NSAIDs (A) can help with pain but do not address other PMS symptoms. Exercise (B) can be beneficial, but it may not directly target PMS symptoms. Decreasing caffeine (C) can help with mood swings, but it is not as effective for physical symptoms compared to reducing fiber intake.
The nurse is preparing a 51-year-old client for a vaginal examination. The nurse should place the client in which position?
- A. Prone
- B. Lateral Sims’
- C. Lithotomy
- D. High Fowler’s
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lithotomy position. This position allows for optimal visualization of the vaginal area and easier access for the examination. The client lies on their back with knees flexed and feet in stirrups, providing proper exposure. Prone (A) is face down and not suitable for a vaginal exam. Lateral Sims' (B) is on the side and not ideal for this exam. High Fowler's (D) is sitting upright, which is not appropriate for a vaginal examination.