Nokea
The nurse is meeting with a client who was newly diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome. She knows that the client has the potential for which diagnoses? Select all that apply.
- A. Knowledge deficit
- B. Disturbed body image
- C. Risk for type 2 diabetes
- D. Impaired mobility
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired mobility. This is because polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) can lead to obesity and insulin resistance, which in turn can increase the risk of impaired mobility due to joint pain, reduced muscle strength, and overall decreased physical activity. The other choices are incorrect because A (Knowledge deficit) can be addressed through education, B (Disturbed body image) is more related to self-esteem and body perception issues, and C (Risk for type 2 diabetes) is a potential consequence of PCOS but not directly related to impaired mobility.
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A client has severe preeclampsia. The nurse would expect the primary health care practitioner to order tests to assess the fetus for which of the following?
- A. Severe anemia.'
- B. Hypoprothrombinemia.'
- C. Craniosynostosis.'
- D. Intrauterine growth restriction.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). In severe preeclampsia, there is a risk of placental insufficiency leading to reduced blood flow to the fetus, resulting in IUGR. The primary concern is monitoring the fetus's growth and well-being.
A: Severe anemia is not typically a direct result of severe preeclampsia and is not a primary concern in this situation.
B: Hypoprothrombinemia refers to a deficiency in blood clotting factors and is not directly related to fetal well-being in the context of severe preeclampsia.
C: Craniosynostosis is a condition where the bones in an infant's skull fuse too early, which is a congenital issue and not typically related to preeclampsia.
In summary, the primary concern in severe preeclampsia is assessing fetal growth and well-being due to placental insufficiency, making IUG
The client receives zidovudine (Retrovir) for treatment of HIV infection. Which assessment data indicates an adverse reaction to the drug?
- A. Cough
- B. Enlarged lymph nodes
- C. Decreased WBC count
- D. Fever
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased WBC count. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression which can lead to a decrease in white blood cell count. This is an adverse reaction as it increases the risk of infections.
A: Cough is not a common adverse reaction to zidovudine.
B: Enlarged lymph nodes are not directly associated with zidovudine adverse reactions.
D: Fever is a non-specific symptom and can occur due to various reasons, not specifically related to zidovudine.
Therefore, the most concerning and relevant assessment data indicating an adverse reaction to zidovudine is a decreased white blood cell count.
Which statement by the client indicates further teaching is needed about uterine cancer?
- A. A Pap test is used to diagnose uterine cancer.
- B. Uterine cancer is the most common cancer of the reproductive tract.
- C. I used estrogen for 2 years without progesterone. This puts me at risk for developing uterine cancer.
- D. Postmenopausal bleeding could indicate uterine cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a Pap test is used to detect cervical cancer, not uterine cancer.
1. A Pap test screens for cervical cancer by detecting abnormal cells in the cervix.
2. Uterine cancer is the most common cancer of the reproductive tract, making choice B accurate.
3. Choice C is correct as using estrogen without progesterone can increase uterine cancer risk.
4. Choice D is also accurate as postmenopausal bleeding can be a symptom of uterine cancer.
In summary, the need for further teaching arises from the misconception that a Pap test can diagnose uterine cancer.
The nurse is teaching a sex education class to teenage girls. The nurse informs them that which age group should receive a vaccination to prevent HPV infection?
- A. 13-29
- B. 12-26
- C. 9-26
- D. 7-20
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (9-26) because the HPV vaccine is recommended for both males and females between the ages of 9 and 26. Vaccination at a younger age provides the best protection before exposure to the virus. Choices A, B, and D include age ranges outside the recommended vaccination window, making them incorrect options.
The pregnant woman who becomes infected with chickenpox should be taught to report promptly:
- A. Cough or dyspnea
- B. Severe skin itching
- C. Joint pain
- D. Increased urination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough or dyspnea. Chickenpox can lead to pneumonia in pregnant women, causing cough or dyspnea. Prompt reporting is crucial for timely intervention. B: Severe itching is common in chickenpox but not a critical symptom. C: Joint pain is not a typical complication of chickenpox. D: Increased urination is not directly related to chickenpox complications during pregnancy. It's important for the pregnant woman to be aware of respiratory symptoms as they can indicate a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention.