Nokea
A client in active labor reports back pain while being examined by a nurse who finds her to be 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced, -2 station, and in the occiput posterior position. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Perform effleurage during contractions.
- B. Place the client in lithotomy position.
- C. Assist the client to the hands and knees position.
- D. Apply a scalp electrode to the fetus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is to assist the client to the hands and knees position. This position, also known as the all-fours position, can help alleviate back pain by encouraging the baby to rotate into a more favorable position for delivery. By being on hands and knees, gravity assists in the rotation of the baby. This position can also help relieve pressure on the mother's back and potentially facilitate a smoother labor progress. Effleurage (choice A) may provide comfort but doesn't address the positional issue. Placing the client in lithotomy position (choice B) can worsen the occiput posterior position. Applying a scalp electrode to the fetus (choice D) is not indicated in this scenario.
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During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
- B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
- C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
- D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately describes an episiotomy as an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus. This information is crucial for the client to understand the purpose and potential benefits of the procedure.
A: While choice A is similar to the correct answer, it includes unnecessary detail about who makes the incision, which may confuse the client.
B: Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area, which is not recommended as it would involve cutting through the anal sphincter.
D: Choice D is incorrect because it introduces unnecessary information about the types of episiotomies without providing the basic understanding of what an episiotomy is.
When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?
- A. Hgb 12.2 g/dL
- B. Urine ketones present
- C. Alanine aminotransferase 20 IU/L
- D. Blood glucose 114 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to dehydration and ketonuria. Presence of urine ketones indicates fat breakdown due to inadequate calorie intake. Option A is within normal range for hemoglobin. Option C is within normal range for alanine aminotransferase. Option D is within normal range for blood glucose. Thus, the presence of urine ketones is the most indicative finding for hyperemesis gravidarum.
A newborn was delivered vaginally and experienced a tight nuchal cord. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Bruising over the buttocks
- B. Hard nodules on the roof of the mouth
- C. Petechiae over the head
- D. Bilateral periauricular papillomas
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Petechiae over the head. This is because tight nuchal cord can cause pressure on the baby's head during delivery, leading to tiny red or purple spots called petechiae due to capillary rupture. Bruising over the buttocks (A) is more common in breech deliveries, hard nodules on the roof of the mouth (B) could indicate Epstein pearls which are benign and common in newborns, and bilateral periauricular papillomas (D) are not related to nuchal cord compression.
When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?
- A. Count the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds to determine the baseline.
- B. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor.
- C. Count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes.
- D. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because counting the fetal heart rate after a contraction helps determine baseline changes, which is essential for identifying fetal distress. This method allows for accurate assessment of fetal well-being in response to contractions. Choice A is incorrect as 15 seconds is not enough time to establish a baseline. Choice B is incorrect as auscultating every 5 minutes may not provide timely information during the active phase. Choice D is incorrect because auscultating every 30 minutes in the second stage may miss important changes in fetal status. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for intermittent fetal heart monitoring.
During active labor, a nurse notes tachycardia on the external fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a potential cause of the heart rate?
- A. Maternal fever
- B. Fetal heart failure
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia
- D. Fetal head compression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maternal fever. Maternal fever can lead to tachycardia in the fetus due to the transfer of maternal antibodies, cytokines, and other inflammatory mediators across the placenta, affecting fetal heart rate. Maternal fever can indicate infection, which can cause fetal distress. The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Fetal heart failure typically presents with bradycardia, not tachycardia.
C: Maternal hypoglycemia can affect the fetus but is more likely to cause fetal bradycardia than tachycardia.
D: Fetal head compression can result in decelerations but not necessarily tachycardia.