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A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum amylase.
- B. Serum sodium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum potassium.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum amylase. In acute pancreatitis, there is inflammation of the pancreas leading to elevated serum amylase levels. Amylase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas, and increased levels indicate pancreatic injury. Monitoring serum amylase helps in diagnosing and assessing the severity of pancreatitis.
Choice B: Serum sodium, and Choice D: Serum potassium may be affected in pancreatitis due to fluid shifts, but they are not specific markers for pancreatitis.
Choice C: Serum calcium may also be affected in pancreatitis, but monitoring serum calcium is not as crucial as monitoring serum amylase for diagnosing and managing acute pancreatitis.
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What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. No need for regular INR monitoring
- B. Lower risk of bleeding
- C. Fewer dietary restrictions
- D. Longer half-life
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of DVT is the absence of regular INR monitoring required with rivaroxaban. This is because rivaroxaban is a direct oral anticoagulant with more predictable pharmacokinetics, eliminating the need for monitoring. Regular INR monitoring is necessary with warfarin to ensure the drug is within the therapeutic range, which can be burdensome for patients and healthcare providers. The other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary advantage of rivaroxaban over warfarin for this specific patient population.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, leading to bronchodilation and improved airflow. This helps to relieve bronchospasm, a common symptom in COPD. Choice A is incorrect because ipratropium does not have significant anti-inflammatory effects. Choice C is incorrect as ipratropium does not directly suppress cough. Choice D is incorrect as ipratropium does not specifically target respiratory secretions.
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely etiology for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain when coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the respiratory muscles, leading to ineffective coughing and clearance of airways. Diminished cough effort can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications.
A: Pain when coughing is not the primary etiology for ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.
C: Thick, dry secretions may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not the most likely etiology compared to diminished cough effort.
D: Excessive inflammation is not typically associated with ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.
What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Decrease cardiac output
- C. Strengthen cardiac contractions
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary action of digoxin in heart failure is to strengthen cardiac contractions. Digoxin inhibits the sodium-potassium pump, leading to an increase in intracellular calcium levels, which enhances the force of myocardial contractions. This helps improve cardiac output and symptoms of heart failure.
Explanation:
A: Incorrect - Digoxin does not increase heart rate, it mainly affects the strength of contractions.
B: Incorrect - Digoxin does not decrease cardiac output; it actually helps improve it by enhancing contractility.
D: Incorrect - Digoxin may have a slight effect on lowering blood pressure, but its primary action in heart failure is to strengthen cardiac contractions, not lower blood pressure.
When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?
- A. Two staff members are overheard talking about a cure for AIDS outside a client's room.
- B. A hospital transporter is reading a client's history and physical while waiting for an elevator.
- C. A UAP tells a client, 'It's hard to quit drinking but Alcoholics Anonymous helped me.'
- D. Two visitors are discussing a hospitalized client's history of drug abuse in the visitor's lounge.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it violates patient confidentiality. Reading a client's history and physical in a public area breaches the client's privacy rights. The other choices do not directly compromise patient confidentiality. A involves discussing a cure for AIDS, which is not a breach of confidentiality. C involves sharing personal experiences with the client, and D involves discussing a client's history of drug abuse in a visitor's lounge, which may not be overheard by the client or staff directly involved in the client's care.