Nokea
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed calcium acetate. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Treat hyperkalemia
- B. Reduce phosphate levels
- C. Lower blood pressure
- D. Increase hemoglobin levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate for a patient with CKD is to reduce phosphate levels. Calcium acetate acts as a phosphate binder, preventing the absorption of dietary phosphate in the intestines. Elevated phosphate levels in CKD can lead to complications such as mineral and bone disorders. Treating hyperkalemia (A) involves other medications like potassium binders, not calcium acetate. Lowering blood pressure (C) typically involves antihypertensive drugs. Increasing hemoglobin levels (D) is usually managed with erythropoiesis-stimulating agents in CKD patients. Therefore, option B is the correct answer for the primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate in CKD patients.
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A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypoglycemia (B) is not a common side effect of lisinopril. Bradycardia (C) and constipation (D) are also not typically associated with lisinopril use. Hyperkalemia is the most critical side effect to monitor in this case.
When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?
- A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
- B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
- C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
- D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because surgical correction of hypospadias is typically recommended before the child is potty-trained. This is important for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes, as the procedure is more straightforward in infants due to their smaller anatomy. Delaying the surgery can lead to increased risk of complications and potential psychological impact on the child as they grow older.
A: Repair within one month to prevent bladder infections is not the primary reason for early correction of hypospadias.
C: Delaying the repair to school age for reducing castration fears is not a valid reason for postponing the surgery.
D: Waiting until after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra repair is not recommended as early correction typically yields better results.
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulate white blood cell production
- B. Increase platelet count
- C. Promote red blood cell production
- D. Enhance clotting factor production
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promote red blood cell production. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. This is crucial for patients with CKD who often develop anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production.
A: Stimulating white blood cell production is the function of other medications, such as colony-stimulating factors, not erythropoietin.
B: Erythropoietin does not have an effect on platelet count.
D: Enhancing clotting factor production is not the primary action of erythropoietin.
What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Reduce blood pressure
- C. Lower cholesterol levels
- D. Decrease blood sugar levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary action of amlodipine is to reduce blood pressure by relaxing and dilating blood vessels, leading to improved blood flow and lower blood pressure. This is achieved by blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels. Increasing heart rate (A), lowering cholesterol levels (C), and decreasing blood sugar levels (D) are not the primary actions of amlodipine and are not directly related to its mechanism of action in treating hypertension.
A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased peripheral edema.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps to remove excess fluid from the body, which can reduce peripheral edema in patients with heart failure. This indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload in the body. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) would not be an expected outcome of furosemide use. Increased heart rate (choice C) is not a direct effect of furosemide and can indicate worsening heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice D) would be an adverse effect of furosemide and would indicate the medication is not working as intended.