Nokea
What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. No need for regular INR monitoring
- B. Lower risk of bleeding
- C. Fewer dietary restrictions
- D. Longer half-life
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of DVT is the absence of regular INR monitoring required with rivaroxaban. This is because rivaroxaban is a direct oral anticoagulant with more predictable pharmacokinetics, eliminating the need for monitoring. Regular INR monitoring is necessary with warfarin to ensure the drug is within the therapeutic range, which can be burdensome for patients and healthcare providers. The other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary advantage of rivaroxaban over warfarin for this specific patient population.
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A patient with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl patch. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
- C. Avoid using additional heating pads over the patch.
- D. Remove the patch before showering.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change the patch every 72 hours. Fentanyl patches are typically designed to be worn for 72 hours before being replaced to maintain consistent pain relief. Changing the patch on time helps prevent withdrawal symptoms and ensures the effectiveness of the medication.
A: Applying the patch to a different site each time is important to prevent skin irritation but is not the most crucial instruction.
C: Avoiding heating pads over the patch is important to prevent overheating and excessive absorption of the medication, but changing the patch timely is more critical.
D: Removing the patch before showering is not necessary as fentanyl patches are designed to be water-resistant.
A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival overgrowth as a side effect. This is due to its effect on fibroblasts in the gums, leading to increased connective tissue production. Hypotension (A), bradycardia (C), and hyperkalemia (D) are not common side effects of phenytoin. Monitoring for gingival hyperplasia is crucial to prevent complications such as difficulty in eating, speaking, and maintaining oral hygiene.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving prednisone (Deltasone). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Infection
- C. Hypotension
- D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infection. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the immune system, increasing the risk of infections in patients. The nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as fever, increased white blood cell count, and localized symptoms.
Rationale:
A: Hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone typically causes hyperglycemia.
C: Hypotension is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone can actually cause fluid retention and increased blood pressure.
D: Weight loss is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone can actually cause weight gain due to fluid retention and increased appetite.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum amylase.
- B. Serum sodium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum potassium.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum amylase. In acute pancreatitis, there is inflammation of the pancreas leading to elevated serum amylase levels. Amylase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas, and increased levels indicate pancreatic injury. Monitoring serum amylase helps in diagnosing and assessing the severity of pancreatitis.
Choice B: Serum sodium, and Choice D: Serum potassium may be affected in pancreatitis due to fluid shifts, but they are not specific markers for pancreatitis.
Choice C: Serum calcium may also be affected in pancreatitis, but monitoring serum calcium is not as crucial as monitoring serum amylase for diagnosing and managing acute pancreatitis.
The charge nurse observes that a client with a nasogastric tube on low intermittent suction is drinking a glass of water immediately after the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) left the room. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP.
- B. Discuss the incident with the UAP at the end of the day.
- C. Write an incident report and notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Remind the client of the potential for electrolyte imbalance.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP. The rationale is as follows: 1) Drinking water with low intermittent suction can cause complications. 2) Immediate action is necessary to prevent harm. 3) Speaking to the UAP clarifies the situation and provides education. 4) Removing the glass of water ensures the client's safety.
Incorrect choices:
B: Discussing at the end of the day delays action and puts the client at risk.
C: Writing an incident report is important, but immediate intervention is needed first.
D: Reminding the client of electrolyte imbalance does not address the current issue of drinking water with a nasogastric tube.