Nokea
A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Relieve neuropathic pain
- B. Reduce inflammation
- C. Enhance opioid analgesia
- D. Suppress cough
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relieve neuropathic pain. Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. It is effective in conditions such as diabetic neuropathy and postherpetic neuralgia. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin does not have anti-inflammatory properties. Choice C is incorrect as gabapentin does not enhance opioid analgesia, but it can be used in conjunction with opioids for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as gabapentin is not indicated for cough suppression.
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A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving prednisone (Deltasone). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Infection
- C. Hypotension
- D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infection. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the immune system, increasing the risk of infections in patients. The nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as fever, increased white blood cell count, and localized symptoms.
Rationale:
A: Hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone typically causes hyperglycemia.
C: Hypotension is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone can actually cause fluid retention and increased blood pressure.
D: Weight loss is not a common side effect of prednisone. Prednisone can actually cause weight gain due to fluid retention and increased appetite.
After performing a paracentesis on a client with ascites, 3 liters of fluid are removed. Which assessment parameter is most critical for the nurse to monitor following the procedure?
- A. Pedal pulses.
- B. Breath sounds.
- C. Gag reflex.
- D. Vital signs.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vital signs. After paracentesis, monitoring vital signs is crucial as fluid removal can lead to changes in blood pressure, heart rate, and overall fluid balance. Hypotension or tachycardia may indicate hypovolemia or shock. Pedal pulses (A) are important but not as critical post-paracentesis. Breath sounds (B) are important for respiratory assessment but not directly related to fluid removal. Gag reflex (C) is unrelated to paracentesis and not a priority post-procedure.
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. This is because warfarin is a medication that affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. PT/INR is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. PT measures how long it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes the PT results. Monitoring PT/INR helps to ensure that the patient is within the target therapeutic range for anticoagulation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Complete blood count (CBC) - CBC does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
C: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Serum potassium level - Monitoring serum potassium level is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?
- A. Rapid-acting
- B. Intermediate-acting
- C. Long-acting
- D. Short-acting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin due to its slow and consistent release, providing basal insulin coverage for about 24 hours. This steady release mimics the body's natural basal insulin secretion pattern. Rapid-acting insulins (A) work quickly to control postprandial glucose levels. Intermediate-acting insulins (B) have a slower onset and last for a moderate duration. Short-acting insulins (D) act quickly but have a shorter duration of action compared to long-acting insulins.
A patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
- A. With meals
- B. At bedtime
- C. Before meals
- D. After meals
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Before meals. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit acid secretion before food intake. Taking it with meals (choice A) may decrease its effectiveness as it needs time to be absorbed. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) may not provide optimal coverage throughout the day. Taking it after meals (choice D) may not allow enough time for the medication to start working before the next meal.