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A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer regular insulin IV.
- B. Administer IV fluids at 250 ml/hr.
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV push.
- D. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.
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A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]
- A. 4 tablets
- B. 3 tablets
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 1 tablet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg · 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Bounding pulse
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Oliguria
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes (D) are a common clinical finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In dehydration, there is insufficient fluid in the body, leading to dry mucous membranes due to decreased saliva production. Bounding pulse (A) is associated with fluid volume excess, not deficit. Bradycardia (B) and oliguria (C) are not typical clinical findings of fluid volume deficit but may be seen in fluid volume excess or other conditions.
A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing chest pain, the priority intervention for the nurse to implement first is to apply oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygenation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and the heart. This intervention takes precedence over administering sublingual nitroglycerin, obtaining an ECG, or initiating continuous cardiac monitoring. While these interventions are important, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the initial priority in the management of a client with chest pain.
The client is receiving discharge teaching for a new diagnosis of asthma. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should use my inhaler as soon as I begin to feel short of breath.
- B. I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack.
- C. I should use my inhaler 30 minutes before exercise.
- D. I should rinse my mouth after using my inhaler.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The statement 'I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack' (B) indicates a need for further teaching. It is important for clients to use their inhaler as prescribed, which may include regular use to prevent asthma attacks. Choice A is correct because using the inhaler when feeling short of breath can help manage asthma symptoms. Choice C is also correct as using the inhaler before exercise can prevent exercise-induced symptoms. Choice D is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps prevent oral thrush, a potential side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Therefore, option B is the most concerning statement that needs clarification.
A 20-year-old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
- B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
- C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
- D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to educate the client on the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation. Although it's crucial to respect the client's beliefs, providing education ensures the client receives accurate information to make informed decisions about her hygiene practices. By offering teaching first, the nurse can address any misconceptions or concerns the client may have while promoting optimal hygiene practices for overall well-being. Choice A should not be the first action as it does not address the client's potential misinformation about hygiene. Choice B is not ideal as it only offers a temporary solution without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C is not the priority as the immediate concern is the client's personal hygiene practices.