The client is being taught how to perform active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the client be instructed to perform?
- A. Tilt the pelvis forwards and backwards
- B. Bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus
- C. Turn the head to the right and left
- D. Extend the arm at the side and rotate it in circles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow, primarily allow movement in one direction, in this case, bending the arm. The correct action to exercise hinge joints is to bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus. This movement specifically targets the hinge joint and promotes its range of motion. Choices A, C, and D involve movements that do not specifically target hinge joints. Tilt the pelvis involves the ball-and-socket joints of the hip, turning the head involves the pivot joint of the neck, and extending the arm and rotating it in circles involve multiple joints including ball-and-socket and pivot joints.
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The client is weak from inactivity due to a 2-week hospitalization. In planning care for the client, which range of motion (ROM) exercises should the nurse include?
- A. Passive ROM exercises to all joints on all extremities four times a day.
- B. Active ROM exercises to both arms and legs two or three times a day.
- C. Active ROM exercises with weights twice a day, 20 repetitions each.
- D. Passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Active ROM exercises are preferred over passive ROM to restore strength. Performing them on both arms and legs two or three times a day is effective in promoting muscle strength and mobility without the need for external assistance. Choice A is incorrect as passive ROM exercises may not help in restoring strength. Choice C is not recommended as using weights may be too strenuous for a weak client. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond may cause discomfort or injury to the weak client.
A client with a diagnosis of hyperkalemia is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Serum sodium level.
- B. Serum potassium level.
- C. Serum calcium level.
- D. Serum glucose level.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Monitoring the serum potassium level allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of this medication in lowering the elevated potassium levels. Serum sodium (A), calcium (C), and glucose (D) levels are not directly impacted by the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.
The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
- B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
- C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
- D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An increased respiratory rate can be a sign of various issues postoperatively, including pain. Assessing and managing pain is crucial as it can lead to tachypnea. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can all contribute to an increased respiratory rate. Therefore, determining if pain is causing the tachypnea is the most important intervention to address the underlying cause. Encouraging ambulation, offering snacks, or forcing fluids are not the priority in this situation as pain assessment takes precedence in managing the increased respiratory rate.
Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube?
- A. Aspirating gastric contents to assure a pH value of 4 or less.
- B. Hearing air pass in the stomach after injecting air into the tubing.
- C. Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted.
- D. Checking the remaining length of tubing to ensure that the correct length was inserted.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most accurate method to confirm the proper placement of a nasogastric tube is by examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted. This visual assessment allows healthcare providers to directly visualize the position of the tube in relation to anatomical landmarks, ensuring it is correctly placed in the stomach. Aspirating gastric contents or hearing air pass may provide some information but are not as definitive as a chest x-ray for confirming placement. Checking the remaining length of tubing is not a reliable method for determining proper placement as it does not indicate where the tip of the tube lies within the body.
In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?
- A. Continue gabapentin.
- B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
- C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
- D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.
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