Nokea
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Crackles in the lungs
- C. Jugular vein distention
- D. Hepatomegaly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of left-sided heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing gas exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening respiratory function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is a common finding in heart failure but may not be as acutely concerning as pulmonary congestion. Jugular vein distention is associated with right-sided heart failure, not left-sided heart failure. Hepatomegaly is often seen in liver conditions and right-sided heart failure, not specifically left-sided heart failure.
You may also like to solve these questions
The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?
- A. 1 ml.
- B. 1.5 ml.
- C. 1.75 ml.
- D. 2 ml.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.
A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve completely.
- C. Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.
- D. Chew the tablet for faster relief.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption of the medication through the oral mucosa, providing quick relief for angina symptoms. Option A, taking the medication with food, is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually, not with food. Option C, swallowing the tablet whole with water, is incorrect as sublingual tablets should not be swallowed whole. Option D, chewing the tablet for faster relief, is also incorrect as chewing the tablet can lead to rapid absorption and potential adverse effects rather than a controlled release for angina relief.
While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
- A. Remove the gloves carefully and follow with hand hygiene
- B. Change gloves and continue
- C. Wash hands immediately without removing gloves
- D. Report the incident to the supervisor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After completing the task, the nurse should remove the gloves carefully and follow with hand hygiene. This practice is crucial to prevent the transmission of any potential pathogens, maintain cleanliness, and reduce the risk of infection. Changing gloves and continuing without proper hand hygiene may lead to contamination. Washing hands immediately without removing gloves is not recommended as it does not ensure thorough hand hygiene. Reporting the incident to the supervisor should be done if there are specific protocols in place for such incidents, but immediate hand hygiene is the priority in this scenario to ensure patient and nurse safety.
During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?
- A. Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate
- B. Palpate, Percuss, Inspect, Auscultate
- C. Auscultate, Inspect, Percuss, Palpate
- D. Percuss, Palpate, Inspect, Auscultate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.
During a blood transfusion, which observation indicates that the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction?
- A. The client reports feeling warm and flushed.
- B. The client develops a rash on the chest and back.
- C. The client experiences chills and a fever.
- D. The client complains of back pain and shortness of breath.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Complaints of back pain and shortness of breath are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a hemolytic reaction. This reaction can lead to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing back pain and shortness of breath due to clot formation in the blood vessels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery. Warmth, flushing, rash, chills, and fever are more commonly associated with allergic reactions or febrile non-hemolytic reactions during transfusions. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect in this context.