A client is admitted with a fever of unknown origin. To assess fever patterns, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Document the client's temperature fluctuations
- B. Assess for flushed, warm skin consistently
- C. Measure temperature at regular intervals
- D. Use different sites for temperature measurement
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To assess fever patterns accurately, the nurse should measure the client's temperature at regular intervals. This approach helps in identifying the pattern of fever spikes and fluctuations, which can provide valuable information for diagnostic and treatment purposes. Assessing for flushed, warm skin or documenting circadian rhythms may not directly reveal the fever pattern, while varying temperature measurement sites could lead to inconsistent readings. Therefore, measuring temperature at regular intervals is the most appropriate intervention to identify fever patterns in this scenario.
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In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?
- A. Continue gabapentin.
- B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
- C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
- D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Bounding pulse
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Oliguria
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes (D) are a common clinical finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In dehydration, there is insufficient fluid in the body, leading to dry mucous membranes due to decreased saliva production. Bounding pulse (A) is associated with fluid volume excess, not deficit. Bradycardia (B) and oliguria (C) are not typical clinical findings of fluid volume deficit but may be seen in fluid volume excess or other conditions.
In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
- B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
- C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
- D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon promptly that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of these issues as it is their responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and ensure that the necessary consent is obtained before proceeding with the surgery. Answering the client's questions directly (choice B) may not be appropriate as the surgeon is the one responsible for providing detailed information about the procedure. Witnessing the client's signature (choice A) is premature since the permit is not signed. Reassuring the client (choice D) is not the most appropriate action at this point; the priority is to involve the surgeon in addressing the unsigned permit and the client's questions.
While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement?
- A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly.
- B. Encourage her to keep the joint uncovered to maintain warmth.
- C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support.
- D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The wife is correctly performing the passive range-of-motion exercises by holding the arm above and below the elbow. The nurse should acknowledge this correct technique (A). It is essential to keep the joint uncovered (B) during exercises, while ensuring the rest of the body remains covered for warmth and privacy. Choices (C) and (D) do not provide optimal support to the joint for effective movement.
After insertion of the indwelling catheter, how should the nurse position the drainage container?
- A. With the drainage tubing taut to maintain maximum suction on the urinary bladder.
- B. Lower than the bladder to maintain a constant downward flow of urine from the bladder.
- C. At the head of the bed for easy and accurate measurement of urine.
- D. Beside the patient in their bed to avoid embarrassment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct position for the drainage container after inserting an indwelling catheter is to have it placed lower than the bladder. This positioning helps maintain a constant downward flow of urine from the bladder, preventing backflow and ensuring proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because having the drainage tubing taut does not promote proper urine flow and may cause kinking. Choice C is incorrect as placing the container at the head of the bed does not affect drainage and is not necessary for accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as the positioning of the drainage container should prioritize proper drainage and care over potential embarrassment.