A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Constipation and urinary retention.
- B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
- C. Sedation and blurred vision.
- D. Insomnia and dry mouth.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.
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A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is exhibiting negative symptoms such as anhedonia and social withdrawal. Which intervention should be a priority for the nurse?
- A. Encourage participation in group activities.
- B. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication.
- C. Assist the client in setting realistic goals.
- D. Promote engagement in social interactions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging participation in group activities is a priority intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. Group activities provide structured social interactions and can help the client gradually re-engage with others, potentially reducing social withdrawal and improving social skills. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice B) is essential in managing positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions, not negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. While assisting the client in setting realistic goals (Choice C) is important for overall care, addressing social withdrawal and anhedonia is more immediate. Promoting engagement in social interactions (Choice D) is beneficial, but encouraging participation in group activities provides a structured and supportive environment that can specifically target the negative symptoms being exhibited.
A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I've been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN's best response?
- A. "Your diet is very harmful and needs to be changed immediately."
- B. "It's important to monitor your calorie intake carefully."
- C. "Have you noticed any physical effects from this low-calorie diet?"
- D. "The diuretics could be causing your body to lose essential nutrients."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D. By addressing the potential harm of diuretics and the low-calorie diet, the nurse effectively addresses both aspects of the client's disordered eating behavior. Choice A is too direct and does not provide information on the specific issue of diuretics. Choice B focuses solely on monitoring calorie intake without addressing the use of diuretics. Choice C inquires about physical effects but does not address the overall risks associated with diuretics and low-calorie intake.
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client's current feelings of depression?
- A. Feelings of frustration.
- B. A sense of loss.
- C. Poor self-esteem.
- D. A lack of intimate relationships.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client's recent history of divorce, job loss, and breakup of a current relationship indicates a series of significant losses. These losses are likely the primary source of his feelings of depression, leading to a sense of loss. While feelings of frustration (choice A) and poor self-esteem (choice C) could be contributing factors, the immediate trigger for his current emotional state appears to be the series of losses. A lack of intimate relationships (choice D) may be a consequence of the client's depressive symptoms rather than the root cause in this scenario.
A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Pan-seared catfish.
- B. Pepperoni pizza.
- C. Deep-fried shrimp.
- D. Beef strips with gravy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.
A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Delay business decisions until his mania subsides.
- B. Identify the feelings associated with his behaviors.
- C. Seek legal counsel when making business decisions.
- D. Describe why he is feeling fearful about his finances.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.