Nokea
Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client's blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?
- A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
- B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
- C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.
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When developing a plan of care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit following aspiration of a caustic material related to a suicide attempt, which nursing problem has the highest priority?
- A. Impaired comfort.
- B. Risk for injury.
- C. Ineffective breathing pattern.
- D. Ineffective coping.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ineffective breathing pattern is the highest priority nursing problem in this scenario because aspiration of a caustic material can lead to serious airway and respiratory issues. This poses an immediate threat to the client's life and requires urgent intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation. The other options, such as Impaired comfort, Risk for injury, and Ineffective coping, are important but are secondary concerns compared to the critical nature of respiratory compromise in this situation.
A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I've been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN's best response?
- A. "Your diet is very harmful and needs to be changed immediately."
- B. "It's important to monitor your calorie intake carefully."
- C. "Have you noticed any physical effects from this low-calorie diet?"
- D. "The diuretics could be causing your body to lose essential nutrients."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D. By addressing the potential harm of diuretics and the low-calorie diet, the nurse effectively addresses both aspects of the client's disordered eating behavior. Choice A is too direct and does not provide information on the specific issue of diuretics. Choice B focuses solely on monitoring calorie intake without addressing the use of diuretics. Choice C inquires about physical effects but does not address the overall risks associated with diuretics and low-calorie intake.
A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
- B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
- C. Document the behavior in the chart.
- D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.
When preparing to administer a prescribed medication to a homeless male at a community psychiatric clinic, the client tells the nurse that he usually takes a different dosage. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell him to take the medication then verify the dosage at the next healthcare team meeting.
- B. Withhold the medication until the dosage can be confirmed.
- C. Inform him that he may refuse the medication and document whether or not he takes it.
- D. Explain to the client that the dosage has been changed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client's plan of care should include what priority problem?
- A. Acute confusion.
- B. Ineffective community coping.
- C. Disturbed sensory perception.
- D. Self-care deficit.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute confusion is the priority problem because it directly impacts the client's safety and functioning. In this scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, which can pose immediate risks to her well-being. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit are not as urgent in this situation. Ineffective community coping focuses on the client's ability to manage stress related to the community, disturbed sensory perception pertains to alterations in sensory input, and self-care deficit involves the inability to perform activities of daily living independently. While these issues may also need addressing, acute confusion takes precedence due to the immediate safety concerns it presents.