A client is considering permanent contraception. Which of the following statements by the nurse is accurate?
- A. Tubal ligation and vasectomy are considered reversible procedures.
- B. Both tubal ligation and vasectomy require a follow-up to confirm effectiveness.
- C. Tubal ligation affects hormone production.
- D. Vasectomy increases the risk of prostate cancer.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Both tubal ligation and vasectomy require follow-up to confirm effectiveness (e.g., sperm count for vasectomy, imaging for tubal ligation). Reversal is not guaranteed, tubal ligation does not affect hormones, and vasectomy is not linked to prostate cancer.
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The nurse is administering intravenous magnesium sulfate as ordered for a client at 34 weeks' gestation with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following are desired outcomes of this therapy? Select all that apply.
- A. T 98, P 72, R 14.
- B. Urinary output<30 mL/hr.
- C. HR 120 BPM.
- D. Fetal heart rate with late decelerations.
- E. BP of <140/90.
- F. DTR's 2+.
- G. Magnesium level= 5.6 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: A,E,F,G
Rationale: Desired outcomes include stable vital signs, absence of late decelerations, and controlled deep tendon reflexes.
A client asks about the side effects of the vaginal contraceptive ring. Which of the following would the nurse include?
- A. Nausea and breast tenderness may occur.
- B. It causes permanent infertility.
- C. It requires surgical insertion.
- D. It guarantees regular periods.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nausea and breast tenderness are possible side effects of the vaginal contraceptive ring, especially initially. It does not cause permanent infertility, require surgical insertion, or guarantee regular periods.
A client asks about the risks of long-term oral contraceptive use. Which of the following would the nurse include in the response?
- A. Long-term use eliminates the risk of ovarian cancer.
- B. Long-term use may increase the risk of blood clots.
- C. Long-term use causes permanent infertility.
- D. Long-term use leads to significant weight loss.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term use of oral contraceptives may increase the risk of blood clots, especially in smokers or those with other risk factors. It reduces ovarian cancer risk, does not cause permanent infertility, and weight changes vary.
After delivery of a viable neonate, a 20-year-old primiparous client comments to her mother and the nurse about the baby. Which of the following comments would the nurse interpret as a possible sign of potential maternal-infant bonding problems?
- A. He's got my funny-looking ears!'
- B. He's got my mother should give him the first feeding.'
- C. He's a lot bigger than I expected him to be.'
- D. I want to buy him a blue outfit to wear when we get home.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Delegating the first feeding to the grandmother suggests reluctance to engage in early bonding activities, which could indicate bonding issues. Other comments reflect normal observations or positive engagement with the neonate.
A full-term client is admitted for induction of labor. When admitted, her cervix is 2/50/0. The initial goal is cervical ripening prior to labor induction. Which drug will prepare her cervix for induction?
- A. Nalbuphine (Nubain).
- B. Oxytocin (Pitocin).
- C. Dinoprostone (Cervidil).
- D. Betamethasone (Celestone).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dinoprostone (Cervidil) is a prostaglandin used for cervical ripening in clients with an unfavorable cervix (e.g., 2 cm, 50% effaced). Nalbuphine is for pain, oxytocin induces contractions, and betamethasone promotes fetal lung maturity.
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