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A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. The tube will drain fluid from your chest.'
- B. The tube will remove excess air from your chest.'
- C. The tube controls the amount of air that enters your chest.'
- D. The tube will seal the hole in your lung.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of the chest tube is to create negative pressure and remove the air that has accumulated in the pleural space.
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The charge nurse is assigning staff to care for the client with disseminated herpes zoster. Which staff member should the charge nurse exclude from being assigned?
- A. A 7-month pregnant nurse who had confirmed chicken pox in childhood
- B. A 32-year-old nurse with unknown disease or vaccination history for chicken pox
- C. A 28-year-old nurse with a history of varicella vaccine and 2 small children at home
- D. A 60-year-old nurse with a history of live herpes zoster vaccine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B: Unknown immunity status poses a risk of varicella infection. A, C, D: These staff have immunity via prior infection or vaccination.
The nurse completed discharge teaching for the client with sutures in place after a skin biopsy. Which statements by the client indicate an understanding of the teaching? Select all that apply.
- A. "The incision should be clean, dry, and not separated."
- B. "I will return in 2 to 3 days to have the stitches removed."
- C. "If I have an elevated temperature, I'll contact my provider."
- D. "I'll keep the bandage on for a week before I check the incision."
- E. "Excessive redness, pain, or drainage may mean it is infected."
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: A: Clean, dry, intact incisions indicate proper care. C: Fever suggests infection, requiring follow-up. E: Redness, pain, or drainage are infection signs. B: Sutures are removed in 7-10 days. D: Incisions should be checked daily.
The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250 and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?
- A. Diminished bowel sounds
- B. Loss of appetite
- C. A cold, pale lower leg
- D. Tachypnea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg. This assessment suggests the presence of an embolus probably from the atrial fibrillation. Peripheral pulses should be checked immediately.
The nurse is caring for the client with an IV. Which findings should prompt the nurse to conclude that the client is experiencing inflammation (phlebitis) at the IV insertion site? Select all that apply.
- A. Pain
- B. Redness
- C. Warmth
- D. Drainage
- E. Mottling
- F. Swelling
Correct Answer: A,B,C,F
Rationale: A: Pain indicates tissue irritation. B: Redness results from vasodilation. C: Warmth is caused by inflammation. F: Swelling occurs from fluid leakage. D: Drainage suggests infection. E: Mottling is unrelated.
The most effective nursing intervention to prevent atelectasis from developing in a post-operative client is to
- A. maintain adequate hydration
- B. assist client to turn, deep breathe, and cough
- C. ambulate client within 12 hours
- D. splint incision
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: assist client to turn, deep breathe, and cough. Deep air excursion by turning, deep breathing, and coughing will expand the lungs and stimulate surfactant production. The nurse should instruct the client on how to splint the chest when coughing. Humidification, hydration and nutrition all play a part in preventing atelectasis following surgery.