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A client is having a radioisotopic imaging scan. What action by the nurse is most important?
- A. Assess the client for shellfish allergies.
- B. Place the client on radiation precautions.
- C. Sedate the client before the scan.
- D. Teach the client about the procedure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because educating the client about the procedure is crucial for informed consent, reducing anxiety, and promoting cooperation during the scan. This empowers the client to understand what to expect and how to prepare. Assessing for shellfish allergies (A) is not directly related to the scan. Placing the client on radiation precautions (B) is unnecessary as the exposure is minimal, and sedating the client (C) should only be considered if medically indicated, not as a routine practice.
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Several gene mutations have been associated with juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML), and they may or may not have prognostic implications. A gene expression–based classification system has been found to be an independent predictor of clinical outcome in these patients. What is the disease signature that predicts a poor outcome?
- A. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
- B. Acute myeloid leukemia–like
- C. Chronic myeloid leukemia-like
- D. BRAF pathway abnormalities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myeloid leukemia-like. This is because JMML shares similarities with acute myeloid leukemia in terms of aggressive progression and poor outcomes. Children with JMML who exhibit an acute myeloid leukemia-like gene expression signature have been shown to have a worse prognosis compared to those with other gene expression profiles. The other choices (A, C, D) are incorrect because tyrosine kinase inhibitors are not directly related to predicting clinical outcomes in JMML, chronic myeloid leukemia-like gene expression profile does not necessarily predict poor outcomes in JMML, and BRAF pathway abnormalities are not specifically associated with predicting poor outcomes in JMML.
A 2-month-old girl is found to have a small, hard mass on her scalp. The mass increases in size over the next 4 weeks. A biopsy is performed that confirms a diagnosis of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma. You initiate chemotherapy with vincristine, dactinomycin, and cyclophosphamide. The child presents to clinic for day 1 of cycle 3 of chemotherapy, and the mass on her scalp is smaller. She is afebrile, absolute neutrophil count is 1,405 cells/mcL, platelet count is 154,000/mcL, and total bilirubin is 0.8 mg/dL. Her mother reports she looks very tired because her eyelids have been 'very droopy,' and she thinks she has a sore throat because her cry is hoarse. Her last bowel movement was 2 days ago. What is the most appropriate chemotherapy plan?
- A. Continue vincristine, dactinomycin, and cyclophosphamide at full dosage.
- B. Do not administer any chemotherapy; rhabdomyosarcoma is progressing and she needs different therapy.
- C. Administer dactinomycin and cyclophosphamide but hold the vincristine and reevaluate weekly. If the ptosis and hoarse cry resolve, vincristine can be resumed with a dose reduction and, if tolerated, re-escalated to the full dose in the future.
- D. Administer dactinomycin and cyclophosphamide but discontinue vincristine permanently.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the child is showing signs of vincristine-induced neurotoxicity, which can manifest as droopy eyelids (ptosis) and hoarse cry. Holding vincristine and reevaluating weekly allows for monitoring of symptoms. If resolved, vincristine can be resumed with a dose reduction to prevent further neurotoxicity. Dactinomycin and cyclophosphamide are continued to maintain treatment efficacy. Continuing full-dose vincristine (choice A) can worsen neurotoxicity. With rhabdomyosarcoma responding to the current regimen, stopping all chemotherapy (choice B) is not appropriate. Discontinuing vincristine permanently (choice D) may compromise the treatment plan.
Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following?
- A. Daily treatment with targeted treatment medications
- B. Radiation therapy on a daily basis
- C. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
- D. An aggressive course of chemotherapy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An aggressive course of chemotherapy. For AML, induction therapy typically involves aggressive chemotherapy to achieve remission. This approach aims to rapidly reduce the number of leukemia cells in the body. Targeted treatment medications are not the standard first-line therapy for AML. Radiation therapy is not commonly used as a primary treatment for AML. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is usually considered after achieving remission with chemotherapy as a consolidation therapy. Therefore, preparing the patient for an aggressive course of chemotherapy aligns with the standard treatment approach for AML.
The health care provider tells the nurse that a client is to be started on a platelet inhibitor. About what drug does the nurse plan to teach the client?
- A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
- B. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
- C. Reteplase (Retavase)
- D. Warfarin (Coumadin)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clopidogrel (Plavix). Platelet inhibitors like Clopidogrel work by preventing blood clots by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Clopidogrel is commonly used to reduce the risk of heart attack and stroke. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low molecular weight heparin used to prevent blood clots. Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clotting factors in the liver, but it does not directly target platelets like Clopidogrel.
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic stable angina. The nurse should identify that which of the following drugs inhibits the action of adenosine diphosphate receptors (ADP) on platelets and can be prescribed to reduce the client's risk for myocardial infarction?
- A. Clopidogrel
- B. Heparin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Alteplase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clopidogrel is the correct answer because it inhibits the action of ADP receptors on platelets, reducing platelet aggregation and the risk of myocardial infarction. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors, Warfarin interferes with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and Alteplase is a thrombolytic drug that dissolves blood clots. None of these drugs target ADP receptors specifically like Clopidogrel does.