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A client is learning how to check basal temperature to determine ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?
- A. On days 13 to 17 of her menstrual cycle
- B. Every morning before arising
- C. 1 hour following intercourse
- D. Before going to bed every night
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Every morning before arising. This is because basal body temperature is the lowest body temperature attained during rest, typically just before waking up. Checking the temperature at this time provides the most accurate measurement of basal temperature. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because ovulation typically occurs around 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, not on days 13 to 17 specifically (A), 1 hour following intercourse is not a reliable indicator of ovulation (C), and basal temperature should be checked in the morning, not before going to bed at night (D).
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A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will place my baby on his stomach when he is sleeping.
- B. I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.
- C. I should pad the mattress in my baby's crib so that he will be more comfortable when he sleeps.
- D. I should place my baby's crib next to the heater to keep him warm during the winter.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing extra blankets from the baby's crib reduces the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby on the stomach (Option A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Option C) can also increase the risk of suffocation. Placing the crib next to a heater (Option D) can lead to overheating and poses a fire hazard. Removing extra blankets ensures a safe sleep environment for the baby.
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
- B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
- C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
- D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. Quickening typically happens around 18-20 weeks, which falls between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy. During this time, the fetus's movements become more pronounced and can be felt by the pregnant person. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not occur in the last trimester, end of the first trimester, or when the uterus rises out of the pelvis. These options do not align with the typical timing of quickening in pregnancy.
A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless red vaginal bleeding. This finding supports the diagnosis of placenta previa due to the characteristic symptom of painless bleeding in the third trimester. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to dilate. The other choices are incorrect because increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus (B) may indicate placental abruption, abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding (C) is not typical of placenta previa, and intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus (D) is more suggestive of preterm labor or bloody show.
A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Preterm newborns have a smaller body surface area than normal newborns.
- B. The added brown fat layer in a preterm newborn reduces his ability to generate heat.
- C. Preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms.
- D. The heat in the incubator rapidly dries the sweat of preterm newborns.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms. Preterm infants have underdeveloped regulatory systems, making them vulnerable to heat loss or overheating. Maintaining a neutral thermal environment in an incubator helps prevent fluctuations in body temperature.
Choice A is incorrect because surface area alone does not explain the need for a neutral thermal environment. Choice B is incorrect as brown fat actually helps generate heat in newborns. Choice D is incorrect as drying sweat is not the primary reason for using an incubator in preterm newborns.
While observing the electronic fetal heart rate monitor tracing for a client at 40 weeks of gestation in labor, a nurse should suspect a problem with the umbilical cord when she observes which of the following patterns?
- A. Early decelerations
- B. Accelerations
- C. Late decelerations
- D. Variable decelerations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate that coincide with contractions, indicating umbilical cord compression. This pattern can lead to fetal hypoxia and distress. Early decelerations (A) are gradual decreases in heart rate that mirror contractions and are considered benign. Accelerations (B) are increases in heart rate and are a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. Late decelerations (C) are gradual decreases in heart rate that occur after the peak of a contraction, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency.