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A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy. What medication should the nurse have available in the event of an overdose of heparin?
- A. Protamine
- B. Amicar
- C. Imferon
- D. Diltiazem
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin overdose. It works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Amicar (Choice B) is used to treat excessive bleeding due to elevated fibrinolytic activity and is not the antidote for heparin overdose. Imferon (Choice C) is an iron supplement and is not indicated for heparin overdose. Diltiazem (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and angina, not for heparin overdose. Therefore, the correct choice is Protamine (Choice A).
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A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parent of a toddler about appropriate snacks. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Sliced bananas
- B. Raw celery
- C. Peanut butter
- D. Marshmallows
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sliced bananas. Sliced bananas are a healthy and safe snack option for toddlers as they provide essential nutrients and are easy to chew. Bananas are a good source of potassium and fiber. Choice B, raw celery, may pose a choking hazard for toddlers due to its stringy texture. Choice C, peanut butter, can also be a choking hazard and may not be suitable for all toddlers due to potential allergies. Choice D, marshmallows, are high in sugar and low in nutrients, making them an unhealthy choice for toddler snacks.
When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?
- A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
- B. Go get the code cart
- C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
- D. Validate the client's advanced directive
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.
The nurse is about to assess a 6-month-old child with nonorganic failure-to-thrive (NOFTT). Upon entering the room, the nurse would expect the baby to be
- A. Irritable and 'colicky' with no attempts to pull to standing
- B. Alert, laughing, and playing with a rattle, sitting with support
- C. Skin color dusky with poor skin turgor over the abdomen
- D. Pale, thin arms and legs, uninterested in surroundings
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive often appears pale, thin, and uninterested in their surroundings. Choice A is incorrect as 'irritable and colicky with no attempts to pull to standing' is more indicative of other conditions like colic. Choice B is incorrect as a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive is unlikely to be alert, laughing, and playing, as they would typically present with signs of failure to thrive. Choice C is incorrect as dusky skin color and poor skin turgor are not typical findings in a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive.
A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the protein level in urine
- B. Have the client turn to the left side
- C. Take the temperature
- D. Monitor the urine output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.
A healthcare professional is assisting with the development of an education program about nutritional risk among adolescents to a group of parents of adolescents. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply).
- A. Skipping more than three meals per week
- B. Eating fast food once a week
- C. Hearty appetite
- D. Drink whole milk to ensure adequate calcium intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Skipping more than three meals per week is an indicator of poor nutritional habits in adolescents. This can lead to inadequate nutrient intake and negatively impact growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with poor nutritional habits among adolescents. Eating fast food once a week may not necessarily indicate poor nutrition if the overall diet is balanced. Having a hearty appetite does not provide specific information about nutritional risk, as appetite can vary among individuals. While whole milk can be a source of calcium, it is not necessary to drink whole milk specifically to ensure adequate calcium intake, as there are other sources of calcium available.