Nokea
A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be:
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Inform the physician
- C. Administer oxygen
- D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea, tingling, and dyspnea during an arteriogram suggest a possible allergic reaction to the contrast dye or other complications (e.g., vasovagal response). The nurse should immediately inform the physician to evaluate and manage the situation. Administering epinephrine or oxygen requires a physician's order, and reassuring the client is inappropriate until the issue is addressed.
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A client with renal calculi has hematuria. The nurse should:
- A. Monitor urine output.
- B. Notify the physician immediately.
- C. Restrict fluids.
- D. Apply ice to the flank.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hematuria is expected with renal calculi; monitoring ensures no excessive bleeding.
A client has been prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for renal calculi that are caused by high uric acid levels. Which of the following indicate the client is experiencing adverse effect(s) of this drug? Select all that apply.
- A. Nausea.
- B. Rash.
- C. Constipation.
- D. Flushed skin.
- E. Bone marrow depression.
Correct Answer: A,B,E
Rationale: Nausea, rash, and bone marrow depression are known adverse effects of allopurinol, indicating potential toxicity or allergic reactions.
The nurse monitors the client with pancreatitis for early signs of shock. Which of the following conditions is primarily responsible for making it difficult to manage shock in pancreatitis?
- A. Severity of intestinal hemorrhage.
- B. Loss of fluids into the retroperitoneal space.
- C. Infection from pancreatic necrosis.
- D. Decreased cardiac output.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluid sequestration into the retroperitoneal space (B) causes significant hypovolemia in pancreatitis, complicating shock management. Intestinal hemorrhage (A), infection (C), and cardiac output (D) are secondary or less common contributors.
Eight hours after surgery, a client has a distended bladder and is unable to void. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Insert a straight catheter.
- B. Increase I.V. fluids.
- C. Notify the surgeon.
- D. Assist the client to the bathroom.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A distended bladder and inability to void suggest urinary retention, common post-surgery. Inserting a straight catheter relieves the bladder and prevents complications like overdistension.
The client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) to treat angina. Priority goals for the client immediately after PTCA should include:
- A. Minimizing dyspnea.
- B. Maintaining adequate blood pressure control.
- C. Decreasing myocardial contractility.
- D. Preventing fluid volume deficit.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining adequate blood pressure post-PTCA ensures coronary perfusion and prevents complications like stent thrombosis or ischemia.