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A client is to receive enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously. Available is enoxaparin 40 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 0.8
Rationale: To calculate the mL of enoxaparin needed, divide the desired dose (30 mg) by the concentration (40 mg/mL): 30 mg / 40 mg/mL = 0.75 mL. Since the answer should be rounded to the nearest tenth, 0.75 rounds up to 0.8 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.8 mL.
Choice A (0.5 mL) is incorrect as it is not the result of the calculation. Choices B, C, D, E, F, and G are also incorrect as they do not match the correct answer derived from the calculation.
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A nurse is preparing to administer amitriptyline 150 mg PO at bedtime. The amount available is amitriptyline 75 mg tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale: The nurse should administer 2 tablets of amitriptyline 75 mg each to achieve a total dose of 150 mg. Since each tablet is 75 mg, 2 tablets would equal 150 mg. This ensures the patient receives the prescribed dose accurately. Other choices are incorrect because administering 1 tablet would result in only 75 mg, insufficient for the prescribed dose. Administering 3 tablets would exceed the prescribed dose, leading to potential overdose. Choices above 3 tablets are also incorrect as they would significantly exceed the prescribed 150 mg dose, risking adverse effects.
A nurse is caring for a client who develops an airway obstruction from a foreign body but remains conscious. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Perform a blind finger sweep.
- B. Turn the client to the side.
- C. Insert an oral airway.
- D. Administer the abdominal thrust maneuver.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer the abdominal thrust maneuver. This action should be taken first because it is the appropriate intervention for a conscious individual with an airway obstruction. The abdominal thrust maneuver helps dislodge the foreign body by creating pressure to expel it. Performing a blind finger sweep (A) can push the object further down the airway. Turning the client to the side (B) may not effectively clear the airway obstruction. Inserting an oral airway (C) could worsen the obstruction if not inserted correctly. Therefore, administering the abdominal thrust maneuver is the priority to clear the airway obstruction in a conscious individual.
A charge nurse is making a room assignment for a client who has scabies. In which of the following rooms should the nurse place the client?
- A. A negative-pressure isolation room.
- B. A private room.
- C. A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis.
- D. A positive-pressure isolation room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A private room. This is appropriate for a client with scabies to prevent the spread of the infestation to others. A private room allows for isolation and reduces the risk of transmission to other clients.
A: A negative-pressure isolation room is typically used for clients with airborne infections to prevent the spread of pathogens outside the room. Scabies is not transmitted through the air.
C: Placing the client in a semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis (head lice) is not ideal as both conditions are caused by different parasites and may increase the risk of cross-contamination.
D: A positive-pressure isolation room is used for clients who need protection from outside pathogens, not for containing contagious conditions like scabies.
In summary, a private room is the best choice for a client with scabies to prevent transmission to others, while the other options are not appropriate due to the nature of scabies and the need for isolation.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving metoprolol. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic effect?
- A. Decreased blood pressure.
- B. Decreased dysrhythmias.
- C. Increased urine output.
- D. Decreased pulse.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased blood pressure. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by reducing heart rate and decreasing the workload on the heart, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. This is a therapeutic effect as it helps manage conditions like hypertension and angina.
Incorrect choices:
B: Decreased dysrhythmias - While metoprolol can help reduce dysrhythmias, the primary therapeutic effect is on blood pressure.
C: Increased urine output - Metoprolol does not directly affect urine output.
D: Decreased pulse - Decreasing pulse is a common side effect of metoprolol, but the therapeutic effect is primarily on blood pressure.
A home health nurse is assessing an older adult client in the home who has decreased vision due to a history of glaucoma. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a safety risk?
- A. Handrails are present in the bathroom.
- B. Electrical cords are placed along the walls.
- C. Uses a microwave for cooking.
- D. Scatter rugs are present in the kitchen.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Scatter rugs are present in the kitchen. Scatter rugs can pose a safety risk for an older adult with decreased vision due to glaucoma as they increase the risk of tripping and falling. The uneven surface and lack of secure placement make scatter rugs hazardous. Handrails in the bathroom (A) enhance safety, electrical cords along the walls (B) may be a tripping hazard but can be easily addressed, and using a microwave for cooking (C) is a safe and convenient option for someone with decreased vision.