A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client’s history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
- A. Testosterone therapy during childhood
- B. Early onset of puberty
- C. Sexually transmitted disease
- D. Cryptorchidism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer as the testicle does not descend into the scrotum during fetal development, increasing the risk of cancer development. Testosterone therapy during childhood (A) and early onset of puberty (B) are not directly linked to testicular cancer. Sexually transmitted diseases (C) typically do not increase the risk of testicular cancer. Therefore, choice D is the most relevant risk factor for testicular cancer in this scenario.
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The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is:
- A. Levodopa
- B. Selegilene
- C. Permax
- D. Symmetrel
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for treating Parkinson's disease because it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing the deficient dopamine levels in Parkinson's patients. Selegiline and Symmetrel are also used in treating Parkinson's, but they are typically used as adjunctive therapy rather than the primary treatment. Permax has been withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an incorrect choice.
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
- A. Sore throat
- B. Acute pain
- C. Sleep apnea
- D. Heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approved diagnosis must meet specific criteria related to patient assessment data, defining characteristics, and related factors. Acute pain is a well-defined nursing diagnosis with specific defining characteristics and related factors, making it a suitable and approved option for inclusion in a patient's care plan. Sore throat, sleep apnea, and heart failure do not meet the criteria for a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as they lack the specificity and comprehensive assessment data required for a nursing diagnosis.
Which of the following symptoms most likely indicates that an infusion is infiltrated?
- A. Redness at the site
- B. Pain at the site
- C. Puffiness at the site
- D. Exudate at the site
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Puffiness at the site. This indicates infiltration of the infusion, where the medication or fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream. Puffiness is a sign of fluid accumulation due to the infiltration. Redness at the site (A) may indicate infection, pain (B) can be due to various reasons, and exudate (D) may suggest infection or irritation, but they are not specific to infiltration. Infiltration assessment involves checking for swelling, coolness, and blanching around the infusion site.
A 45-year old female diabetic is displaying signs of irritability and irrational behavior during an office visit. The nurse observes visible tremors in the client’s hands. based on the client’s history and the nurse’s understanding of diabetes mellitus, the nurse interprets these findings to be signs of:
- A. hyperglycemia
- B. hyperglycemic hyperosmolar
- C. diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) nonketosis (HHNK)
- D. hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: hypoglycemia. In a diabetic patient, signs of irritability, irrational behavior, and visible tremors in the hands indicate low blood sugar levels, which is hypoglycemia. This is because the brain relies on glucose for energy, and when blood sugar levels drop too low, it can lead to neuroglycopenic symptoms such as confusion and tremors.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: hyperglycemia - High blood sugar levels typically present with symptoms such as frequent urination, increased thirst, and fatigue, not irritability and tremors.
B: hyperglycemic hyperosmolar - This condition is characterized by extremely high blood sugar levels and severe dehydration, leading to symptoms such as extreme thirst and confusion, not irritability and tremors.
C: diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) nonketosis (HHNK) - These conditions are associated with high blood sugar levels and metabolic disturbances,
An adult is being taught about a healthy diet. How can the food pyramid help guide the client on his diet?
- A. By indicating exactly how many servings of each group to eat
- B. By calculating how many calories the client should have
- C. By suggesting daily food choices
- D. By dividing the food into four basic groups
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: By suggesting daily food choices. The food pyramid helps guide a client's diet by recommending the types and proportions of food to consume daily, such as fruits, vegetables, grains, protein, and dairy. It does not specify exact servings (A), calculate calories (B), or divide food into only four basic groups (D). The pyramid is a visual representation of a balanced diet, emphasizing variety and moderation.