Nokea
A febrile patient’s fluid output is in excess of normal because of diaphoresis. The nurse should plan fluid replacement based on the knowledge that insensible losses in an afebrile person are normally not greater than:
- A. 300ml/24hr
- B. 900ml/24hr
- C. 600ml/24hr
- D. 1200ml/24hr
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (600ml/24hr) because insensible fluid losses in an afebrile person are typically around 600ml per 24 hours. Insensible losses include water lost through the skin as sweat and through the lungs during respiration. These losses are not easily quantifiable but are estimated to be around 600ml/day in normal circumstances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are either too low (A and B) or too high (D) compared to the normal range of insensible fluid losses. Selecting C as the correct answer is based on the understanding of physiological principles related to fluid balance and normal body functions.
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What is the primary purpose of validation as a part of assessment?
- A. To identify data to be validated
- B. To establish an effective nurse–client communication
- C. To maintain effective relationships with coworkers
- D. To plan appropriate nursing care
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of validation in assessment is to ensure that the data collected is accurate and reliable to plan appropriate nursing care. Validation helps confirm the accuracy of data, identify inconsistencies, and ensure that the information gathered is trustworthy. By verifying the data, nurses can make informed decisions and tailor individualized care plans to meet the patient's needs effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the purpose of validation in assessment. Choice A focuses on the identification of data, not the purpose of validation. Choice B and C pertain to communication and relationships, which are important but not the primary purpose of validation in the assessment process.
A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected thyroid cancer. What is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults?
- A. Follicular carcinoma
- B. Anaplastic carcinoma
- C. Medullary carcinoma
- D. Papillary carcinoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Papillary carcinoma. This is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for about 80% of cases. It is typically slow-growing and has a good prognosis. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Follicular carcinoma (choice A) is less common than papillary carcinoma and arises from the follicular cells as well. Anaplastic carcinoma (choice B) is a highly aggressive and rare form of thyroid cancer. Medullary carcinoma (choice C) originates from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland and is not as common as papillary carcinoma. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is D, papillary carcinoma, due to its high prevalence and relatively favorable prognosis.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a bowel resection. Which of the following would indicate that the patient’s gastrointestinal tract is resuming normal function?
- A. Firm abdomen
- B. Presence of flatus
- C. Excessive thirst
- D. Absent bowel sounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of flatus. This indicates normal gastrointestinal function post-bowel resection. Flatus production signifies peristalsis and passage of gas through the intestines, indicating that the bowels are working. A, firm abdomen, may indicate distention or ileus, not normal function. C, excessive thirst, is unrelated to bowel function. D, absent bowel sounds, may indicate ileus or bowel obstruction, not normal function.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. Which nutrient is not likely to be in the solution?
- A. dextrose
- B. electrolytes
- C. trace minerals
- D. amino acids
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: trace minerals. TPN solutions typically include dextrose for energy, electrolytes for maintaining fluid balance, and amino acids for protein synthesis. Trace minerals are not typically included in TPN solutions as they are only required in small amounts and can be toxic in excess. Therefore, it is not likely to be in the solution. The other choices (A, B, D) are essential components of TPN solutions necessary for meeting the nutritional needs of the patient.
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
- A. abnormal vital signs. Have the patient transported to the radiology department for a scheduled x-ray, and
- B. review vital signs upon return.
- C. Ask the NAP to record the patient’s vital signs before administering medications.
- D. Omit the vital signs because the patient is presently in no distress.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should ask the NAP to record the patient's vital signs before administering medications. This is important for ensuring patient safety and monitoring any potential changes in the patient's condition. By having the NAP record the vital signs, the nurse can assess the patient's current status and make informed decisions regarding medication administration.
Option A is incorrect because administering medications without knowing the patient's vital signs, especially if they are abnormal, can be risky. Option B is not the best choice as it delays addressing the missing vital signs. Option D is incorrect as omitting vital signs assessment is not in line with best practices for patient care.