Nokea
A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected thyroid cancer. What is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults?
- A. Follicular carcinoma
- B. Anaplastic carcinoma
- C. Medullary carcinoma
- D. Papillary carcinoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Papillary carcinoma is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for approximately 80% of all thyroid cancers. It typically affects individuals in their 30s and 40s and has an excellent prognosis with high survival rates, especially when detected early. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland and is known for its characteristic papillary growth pattern. It often presents as a painless thyroid nodule and may be associated with a history of radiation exposure. Treatment usually involves surgery to remove the thyroid gland (thyroidectomy) followed by radioactive iodine therapy and thyroid hormone replacement.
You may also like to solve these questions
While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse should take note of what assessment parameters?
- A. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time
- B. Platelet count, blood glucose levels, and white blood cell (WBC) count
- C. Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels
- D. Fibrinogen level, WBC, and platelet count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), it is important to assess key parameters that can indicate abnormal clotting and bleeding tendencies. The platelet count is essential as DIC can lead to thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are coagulation tests that evaluate the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways of blood clotting, respectively. Prolongation of these times can indicate abnormal coagulation processes seen in DIC. Monitoring these parameters allows healthcare providers to assess and manage DIC promptly to prevent further complications.
A nurse is establishing several health programs, such as bicycle safety, to improve the health status of a target population. This describes which step in the community nursing process?
- A. Planning
- B. Evaluation
- C. Assessment
- D. Implementation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse establishing health programs, such as bicycle safety, to improve the health status of a target population is engaging in the implementation phase of the community nursing process. Implementation involves putting the planned interventions into action. In this scenario, the nurse is actively carrying out the health programs to promote bicycle safety, which is a crucial step in the community nursing process. The planning phase precedes implementation, where the nurse develops the interventions and strategies to address community health needs. Following implementation, the next step in the community nursing process would be evaluation, where the effectiveness of the health programs would be assessed to determine their impact on the target population.
The multilumen pulmonary artery catheter allows the nurse to measure hemodynamic pressures at different points in the heart. When the tip enters the small branches of the pulmonary artery, the nurse can assess all of the following except:
- A. Central venous pressure (CVP)
- B. Pulmonary artery capillary pressure (PACP)
- C. Pulmonary artery obstructive pressure (PACP)
- D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The multilumen pulmonary artery catheter, when positioned in the small branches of the pulmonary artery, allows the nurse to measure various hemodynamic pressures. Central venous pressure (CVP), Pulmonary artery capillary pressure (PACP), and Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) can be measured accurately at this point. However, "Pulmonary artery obstructive pressure" is not a valid or recognized hemodynamic pressure parameter. Instead, the correct term for this measurement that can be assessed using the catheter is the Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) or Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP), which reflects the left atrial pressure.
A 34 year old client is diagnosed with AIDS. His pharmacologic management includes zidovudine (AZT). During a home visit, the client states, "I don't understand how this medication works. Will it stop the infection?" What is the nurse's best response?
- A. The medication helps to slow the disease process, but it won't cure or stop it totally
- B. The medication blocks reverse transcriptase, the enzyme required fro HIV replication
- C. Don't you know? There aren't medication to stop or cure HIV
- D. No. it won't stop the infection. In fact, sometimes the HIV can become immune to the drug itself
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's best response is, "The medication blocks reverse transcriptase, the enzyme required for HIV replication." This response provides the client with a clear and accurate explanation of how zidovudine (AZT) works. AZT is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) that works by blocking the activity of reverse transcriptase, an enzyme needed for HIV replication. By inhibiting this enzyme, AZT helps to slow down the replication of the virus, reducing the viral load in the body and slowing the progression of the disease. It is important for the client to understand that while AZT can help manage HIV/AIDS, it is not a cure and will not completely eliminate the infection.
A patient was diagnosed with hiatal hernia. She frequently has regurgitation and a sour taste on his mouth especially after eating large meals. Which action by the client shows understanding of her treatment regimen?
- A. elevate her legs when she is sleeping
- B. drink more fluids with her meals
- C. increase the roughage in her diet
- D. avoid caffeine, alcohol, and chocolate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hiatal hernia is a condition where a part of the stomach pushes up through the diaphragm muscle. Symptoms often include regurgitation of stomach acid into the esophagus, leading to heartburn and a sour taste in the mouth. Avoiding triggers like caffeine, alcohol, and chocolate can help reduce acid reflux and alleviate symptoms. These substances can relax the lower esophageal sphincter and increase stomach acid production, worsening symptoms in patients with hiatal hernia. Therefore, avoiding caffeine, alcohol, and chocolate is a key aspect of managing hiatal hernia symptoms effectively. The other options provided do not directly address the underlying cause of the symptoms experienced by the patient with hiatal hernia.