Nokea
A client is undergoing preparation for extensive colorectal surgery. Which of the following oral antibiotics should be administered to suppress normal flora in the GI tract?
- A. Kanamycin
- B. Gentamicin
- C. Neomycin
- D. Tobramycin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neomycin. Neomycin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is administered orally before GI surgery to eliminate the normal flora in the large intestine. This helps reduce the risk of postoperative infections by decreasing the bacterial load in the gut. Choices A, B, and D (Kanamycin, Gentamicin, Tobramycin) are not typically used to suppress normal flora in the GI tract before colorectal surgery.
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A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take the medication with a high-fat meal.
- B. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
- C. Expect a persistent cough.
- D. Avoid foods high in fiber.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Atenolol, a beta-blocker, they should monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. It is crucial because if the heart rate is below 60 bpm, the client needs to contact their healthcare provider for further guidance and evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Atenolol does not need to be taken with a high-fat meal, does not typically cause a persistent cough, and there is no need to avoid foods high in fiber when taking this medication.
A solution for the eyes
- A. effervescent
- B. mucilage
- C. spirits
- D. collyria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Collyria refers to eye drops or an eye lotion that is used to treat eye conditions. When the question is asking for a solution for the eyes, collyria is the most appropriate choice among the options given. Effervescent, mucilage, and spirits do not specifically relate to eye treatments. Collodion is a type of liquid adhesive used in medical settings, but it is not primarily intended for eye-related issues. Therefore, collyria is the correct solution for the eyes.
When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Ciprofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with an antacid.
- B. Avoid direct sunlight.
- C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. Expect urine to turn orange.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ciprofloxacin is to avoid direct sunlight. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, increasing the risk of sunburn. Clients should be advised to avoid direct sunlight and wear protective clothing, including hats and sunglasses when going outdoors to prevent skin damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ciprofloxacin with an antacid can reduce its absorption, so they should not be taken together. Increasing dairy product intake is not necessary or relevant to taking Ciprofloxacin. While Ciprofloxacin can discolor urine, turning it orange, this is not a critical side effect that requires specific instructions for the client.
A client has been prescribed Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- B. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- C. Monitor your heart rate daily before taking the medication.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching for a client prescribed Warfarin is to 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Foods high in vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of Warfarin by interfering with its anticoagulant effects, potentially leading to blood clotting issues. It is crucial for clients on Warfarin therapy to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods to ensure the stability of the medication's effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Warfarin with food, monitoring heart rate daily, or limiting fluid intake are not directly related to optimizing the effectiveness of Warfarin therapy.
Which of the following has the shortest elimination half-life?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Morphine
- C. Methadone
- D. Remifentanil
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elimination half-life measures how quickly a drug is cleared from plasma. Naloxone's half-life is about 1-2 hours, used for opioid reversal. Morphine's is 2-4 hours, reflecting its duration as an analgesic. Methadone's is long, 15-60 hours, suiting addiction maintenance. Fentanyl's is 2-4 hours, typical for anesthesia. Remifentanil, an ultra-short-acting opioid, has a half-life of 3-10 minutes due to rapid esterase metabolism, making it ideal for procedures needing quick offset. Its brevity contrasts with others, ensuring minimal residual effects, a key advantage in critical care settings where rapid recovery is essential.