A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:
- A. a maintenance dose.
- B. a loading dose.
- C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
- D. the medication to be given intravenously.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A loading or priming dose rapidly establishes a therapeutic plasma drug level. It can be calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration.
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The nurse is caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption. The care plan for the client should include which of the following priority strategies?
- A. Make a referral for grief counseling
- B. Allow the woman to see her baby initially, and then discourage further visits
- C. Provide opportunities for the woman to express her feelings
- D. Inform the woman she has the right to change her mind about relinquishment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Providing opportunities to express feelings addresses the immediate emotional needs of grief, loneliness, and guilt, which is a priority for supporting the woman's psychological well-being.
If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?
- A. retrograde ejaculation
- B. decreased plasma testosterone
- C. hypertrophy of testicles
- D. state of euphoria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Untreated chronic renal failure causes decreased testosterone levels, atrophy of testicles, and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure. It is a complication of transurethral resection of the prostate. In chronic renal failure, the testicles atrophy; they do not hypertrophy. Chronic renal failure produces a state of depression, not euphoria.
A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?
- A. lungs
- B. liver
- C. kidneys
- D. adrenal glands
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because prolonged use of acetaminophen might result in an increased risk of renal dysfunction, but a single overdose does not precipitate life-threatening problems in the respiratory system, renal system, or adrenal glands.
Which of the following vaccines is a live virus?
- A. varicella
- B. IPV
- C. DTaP
- D. hepatitis B
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Varicella is a live virus, as is OPV. IPV is an inactivated polio vaccine.
In infants and children, the side effects of first-generation over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax), can include:
- A. Reye's syndrome.
- B. cholinergic effects.
- C. paradoxical CNS stimulation.
- D. nausea and diarrhea.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Typically, first-generation OTC antihistamines have a sedating effect because of passage into the CNS. However, in some individuals, especially infants and children, paradoxical CNS stimulation occurs and is manifested by excitement, euphoria, restlessness, and confusion. For this reason, use of first-generation OTC antihistamines has declined and second-generation product use has increased. Reye's syndrome is a systemic response to a virus. First-generation OTC antihistamines do not exhibit a cholinergic effect. Nausea and diarrhea are uncommon with first-generation OTC antihistamines.
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