Nokea
A client post-splenectomy is at risk for infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?
- A. Take all prescribed antibiotics as directed.
- B. Avoid crowded places and people who are sick.
- C. Wash hands frequently and practice good hygiene.
- D. Keep the surgical site clean and dry.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Wash hands frequently and practice good hygiene.' After a splenectomy, the client is at an increased risk of infection due to the role of the spleen in the immune system. Maintaining good hand hygiene, such as frequent handwashing, is crucial to prevent infections. While taking prescribed antibiotics as directed (Choice A) is important if prescribed, it is not the most crucial preventive measure in this scenario. Avoiding crowded places and sick people (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but may not always be feasible. Keeping the surgical site clean and dry (Choice D) is important for wound care but is not the primary preventive measure to protect against infections in a post-splenectomy client.
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The nurse is teaching a pregnant client how to distinguish prelabor contractions from true labor contractions. Which statement about prelabor contractions is accurate?
- A. They are irregular
- B. They are usually felt in the abdomen
- C. They start in the back and radiate to the abdomen
- D. They become more intense during walking
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement about prelabor contractions (Braxton Hicks contractions) is that they are usually felt in the abdomen. They are irregular in nature and do not intensify with movement. Choice A is incorrect because prelabor contractions are irregular, not regular. Choice C is incorrect as prelabor contractions do not start in the back and radiate to the abdomen. Choice D is incorrect as prelabor contractions do not become more intense during walking.
A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
The PN notes that an older female client has developed a nonproductive cough and seems more confused than the previous day. Vital signs are temperature 99.8°F, pulse 94, respirations 22, and B/P 108/54. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
- A. Report the findings to the charge nurse
- B. Monitor the client's temperature hourly
- C. Offer the client fluids frequently
- D. Provide care to moisten oral mucosa
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The change in the client's condition, especially confusion and a new cough, may indicate the onset of an infection such as pneumonia, which requires immediate attention. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures prompt evaluation and intervention. Monitoring the client's temperature hourly (Choice B) could be important but not the most critical at this point. Offering the client fluids frequently (Choice C) and providing care to moisten oral mucosa (Choice D) are not the priority interventions when facing potential signs of infection and confusion in the client.
A client is recovering from a right-sided mastectomy and is concerned about lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to minimize this risk?
- A. Encourage wearing tight clothing on the affected arm.
- B. Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm.
- C. Recommend the client sleep on the affected side.
- D. Suggest frequent massage of the affected arm.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm. Lifting heavy objects with the affected arm can increase the risk of lymphedema. It is important for clients to avoid activities that strain the affected arm to minimize the risk of developing lymphedema. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because wearing tight clothing on the affected arm, sleeping on the affected side, and frequent massage of the affected arm can potentially worsen lymphedema or impede the recovery process. Tight clothing can impede lymphatic flow, sleeping on the affected side can restrict circulation, and frequent massage can exacerbate swelling in the arm.
What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
- A. To transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues
- B. To protect the body from infections
- C. To help in blood clotting
- D. To regulate body temperature
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and return carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the body's tissues. Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not involved in protecting the body from infections. Choice C is incorrect because blood clotting is mainly facilitated by platelets and clotting factors, not hemoglobin. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled by processes like sweating and shivering, not by hemoglobin.