Nokea
A client presents with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Check the client's capillary refill.
- B. Massage the client's fundus.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for the client.
- D. Prepare the client for a blood transfusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Massaging the client's fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions and control postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine hypotonicity. This action helps prevent further blood loss and promotes uterine tone. Checking capillary refill would not directly address the immediate issue of hemorrhage. Inserting a urinary catheter is not a priority in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Preparing for a blood transfusion may be necessary later, but addressing the uterine hypotonicity and hemorrhage is the priority.
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A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)
- A. Respirations less than 12/min
- B. Urinary output less than 25 mL/hr
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to respiratory depression (respirations less than 12/min), decreased urinary output (less than 25 mL/hr), and altered mental status (decreased level of consciousness). Respiratory depression occurs due to the impact of magnesium on the central nervous system. Decreased urinary output is a result of magnesium's effects on renal blood flow. Altered mental status is a common sign of magnesium toxicity affecting brain function. Reporting these signs promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because they are all potential signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported.
When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Betamethasone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that promotes fetal lung maturity by stimulating the production of surfactant, essential for lung function.
Step 2: At 32 weeks, the fetus may benefit from accelerated lung development to reduce respiratory distress.
Step 3: Calcium gluconate is used for hypocalcemia, not for fetal lung maturity.
Step 4: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to delay preterm labor, not for lung maturity.
Step 5: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker to prevent preterm labor, not for fetal lung maturity.
A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased platelet count
- B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. Decreased megakaryocytes
- D. Increased WBC
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: In idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), there is a decreased platelet count due to immune-mediated destruction of platelets.
Step 2: This leads to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising in the postpartum client.
Step 3: Other choices are incorrect because in ITP, there is no increase in ESR or WBC. Also, megakaryocytes may be normal or increased due to compensatory production.
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Metronidazole
- D. Zidovudine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone. It is the recommended first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that effectively treats gonorrhea. Fluconazole (B) is used for fungal infections, not bacterial. Metronidazole (C) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, not gonorrhea. Zidovudine (D) is used to treat HIV, not gonorrhea. Therefore, A is the correct choice for treating gonorrhea effectively.
A client who is pregnant states that her last menstrual period was April 1st. What is the client's estimated date of delivery?
- A. January 8
- B. January 15
- C. February 8
- D. February 15
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). In this case, April 1st + 280 days = January 8, which is the correct EDD. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not account for the 280-day gestation period from the LMP.