Nokea
A healthcare provider in a clinic is reinforcing teaching with a client of childbearing age about recommended folic acid supplements. Which of the following defects can occur in the fetus or neonate as a result of folic acid deficiency?
- A. Iron deficiency anemia
- B. Poor bone formation
- C. Macrosomic fetus
- D. Neural tube defects
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Neural tube defects. Folic acid is crucial for neural tube development in the fetus. Without sufficient folic acid, neural tube defects like spina bifida can occur. Iron deficiency anemia (A) is not directly related to folic acid deficiency. Poor bone formation (B) is more associated with calcium and vitamin D deficiencies. Macrosomic fetus (C) refers to excessive fetal growth, not a direct consequence of folic acid deficiency. In summary, folic acid deficiency primarily increases the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus or neonate.
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During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It is used to stimulate uterine contractions.
- B. It will decrease the incidence of uterine contractions.
- C. It lulls the fetus to sleep.
- D. It awakens a sleeping fetus.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the acoustic vibration device is used during a nonstress test to wake up a sleeping fetus, ensuring that the baby is active and responsive during the test. This helps to assess the baby's well-being and monitor its heart rate patterns. Choice A is incorrect as the device does not stimulate uterine contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it does not decrease the incidence of contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the device does not lull the fetus to sleep, but rather ensures the fetus is awake and moving during the test.
A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
- B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
- C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
- D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because continuing to take insulin during nausea and vomiting is crucial for maintaining blood glucose control in clients with diabetes. Nausea and vomiting can lead to decreased food intake, risking hypoglycemia if insulin is not adjusted.
Choice A is incorrect because fasting blood glucose levels should ideally be maintained between 60-90 mg/dL in pregnant clients with diabetes for optimal outcomes, not 100-120 mg/dL.
Choice B is incorrect because engaging in moderate exercise when blood glucose is high (250 or higher) can exacerbate hyperglycemia rather than help in lowering blood glucose levels.
Choice D is incorrect because avoiding exercise when blood glucose exceeds 250 is not recommended. Exercise can help lower blood glucose levels and improve insulin sensitivity.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is in early labor. The client has a platelet count of 75,000/mm3 and is requesting pain relief. Which of the following treatment modalities should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Epidural analgesia
- B. Naloxone hydrochloride
- C. Attention-focusing
- D. Pudendal nerve block
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Attention-focusing. At 40 weeks gestation with a platelet count of 75,000/mm3, epidural analgesia is contraindicated due to the risk of epidural hematoma. Naloxone hydrochloride is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for labor pain relief. Pudendal nerve block is used for local anesthesia during the second stage of labor, not for early labor pain relief. Attention-focusing techniques can help the client manage pain without pharmacological interventions, ensuring safety for both the client and the baby.
A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)
- A. Joint pain
- B. Malaise
- C. Rash
- D. Tender lymph nodes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tender lymph nodes. In TORCH infections, which include Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus, tender lymph nodes are a common finding due to the body's immune response to the infection. Joint pain (choice A) is not typically associated with TORCH infections. Malaise (choice B) is a general feeling of discomfort and is not specific to TORCH infections. Rash (choice C) is also not a common finding in TORCH infections, making it an incorrect choice.
A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)
- A. Oligohydramnios
- B. Hydramnios
- C. Fetal cord compression
- D. Polyhydramnios
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A client at 42 weeks of gestation is at risk for oligohydramnios, which is associated with decreased amniotic fluid levels. Amnioinfusion can be used to increase amniotic fluid volume to prevent fetal cord compression and facilitate fetal movement during labor.
Summary:
- B: Hydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not require amnioinfusion.
- C: Fetal cord compression is a reason for amnioinfusion, not a condition to prepare for.
- D: Polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not typically require amnioinfusion unless there are complicating factors.