A client in active labor is irritable, reports the urge to have a bowel movement, vomits, and states, 'I've had enough. I can't do this anymore.' Which of the following stages of labor is the client experiencing?
- A. Second stage
- B. Fourth stage
- C. Transition phase
- D. Latent phase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing the transition phase of labor. This stage occurs between the first and second stages, characterized by intense contractions, rapid cervical dilation, and strong emotions like irritability and feeling overwhelmed. The urge to have a bowel movement and vomiting are common signs indicating the baby is descending. The statement 'I can't do this anymore' is typical of transition as it signifies the peak of discomfort before the urge to push in the second stage. Other options are incorrect as the symptoms described align with the transition phase.
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A client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypothermia
- C. Constipation
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Carboprost is a prostaglandin used to treat postpartum hemorrhage that can cause hypertension as an adverse effect due to its vasoconstrictive properties. This can lead to increased blood pressure, which should be monitored closely. Hypothermia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of carboprost. Constipation (choice C) and muscle weakness (choice D) are also not typically associated with carboprost use. Monitoring blood pressure and signs of hypertension is crucial due to the potential adverse effects of carboprost.
An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse.
- B. Do not take this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive.
- C. If you do not start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test.
- D. One dose of this medication will prevent pregnancy for 14 days after taking it.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that is most effective when taken within 72 hours after unprotected sex.
Step 2: Taking the medication within the specified time frame increases its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Step 3: Thus, the nurse should emphasize to the adolescent the importance of taking the medication promptly after unprotected intercourse.
Step 4: This information is crucial for the adolescent to understand the time-sensitive nature of levonorgestrel contraception.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect because it provides contradictory information. Levonorgestrel can be taken even if the individual is on an oral contraceptive.
- Choice C is incorrect as starting a period is not a reliable indicator of pregnancy. A pregnancy test is recommended if there are concerns.
- Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraception and does not provide protection for 14 days.
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)
- A. Breast tenderness
- B. Urinary frequency
- C. Epistaxis
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. At 6 weeks of gestation, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency from increased blood flow to kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and vessel fragility. Therefore, all options are relevant and should be included in the education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy.
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?
- A. No alteration in menses
- B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus
- C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range
- D. Report of severe shoulder pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of severe shoulder pain. In a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. As the tube ruptures, there is internal bleeding which can irritate the diaphragm, causing referred pain to the shoulder. This phenomenon is known as Kehr's sign. The other choices are incorrect because with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, there would typically be altered menses due to the pregnancy disruption, a transvaginal ultrasound would not show a fetus in the uterus, and blood progesterone levels would not be elevated.
When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Betamethasone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that promotes fetal lung maturity by stimulating the production of surfactant, essential for lung function.
Step 2: At 32 weeks, the fetus may benefit from accelerated lung development to reduce respiratory distress.
Step 3: Calcium gluconate is used for hypocalcemia, not for fetal lung maturity.
Step 4: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to delay preterm labor, not for lung maturity.
Step 5: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker to prevent preterm labor, not for fetal lung maturity.
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