A client receives a thrombolytic agent. The expected outcome of this drug therapy includes:
- A. Improved cerebral perfusion
- B. Decreased vascular permeability
- C. Dissolved emboli
- D. Prevention of further cerebral hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombolytic agents (e.g., alteplase) dissolve existing clots, such as emboli in pulmonary embolism or arterial occlusion, restoring blood flow. They do not improve cerebral perfusion, decrease vascular permeability, or prevent cerebral hemorrhage (they increase bleeding risk).
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The nurse is caring for a client who has influenza. Which of the following prescriptions may be prescribed by the primary healthcare provider (PHCP)?
- A. Valacyclovir
- B. Oseltamivir
- C. Azithromycin
- D. Omeprazole
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza. Choice A (valacyclovir) is for herpes, Choice C (azithromycin) is an antibiotic, and Choice D (omeprazole) is a proton pump inhibitor, none of which treat influenza.
The nurse is caring for a client with Meniere's Disease. Which of the following assessment findings would be expected? Select all that apply.
- A. Presbyopia
- B. Tinnitus
- C. Vertigo
- D. Dyskinesia
- E. Hearing loss
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: Meniere's disease is characterized by tinnitus (ringing in the ears), vertigo (spinning sensation), and hearing loss due to inner ear dysfunction. Presbyopia (age-related vision loss) and dyskinesia (abnormal movements) are not associated with Meniere's disease.
A client who had a total hip replacement 2 days ago has developed an infection with a fever. The nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit related to diaphoresis is made. Which of the following is the most appropriate outcome?
- A. The client drinks 2,000 mL of fluid per day.
- B. The client understands how to manage the incision.
- C. The client's bed linens are changed as needed.
- D. The client's skin remains cool throughout hospitalization.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Drinking 2,000 mL of fluid daily addresses fluid volume deficit due to diaphoresis.
The nurse transfers a client who received fentanyl 50 mcg IV push 10 minutes ago from the bed to a chair when the client becomes dizzy and falls into the chair. Which of the following actions would be appropriate for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer prescribed naloxone
- B. Assist the client back to bed
- C. Call a code blue
- D. Assess the client's vital signs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dizziness after fentanyl administration suggests orthostatic hypotension; assisting the client back to bed ensures safety.
A 72-year-old client with cancer needs assistance with paying hospital bills. The nurse should refer the client to a:
- A. Bank representative.
- B. Social worker.
- C. Loan officer.
- D. Representative of the hospital billing department.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A social worker can connect the client with financial assistance programs and resources to help manage hospital bills.
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