A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?
- A. Bladder distention
- B. Serum albumin level
- C. Abdominal girth
- D. Breath sounds
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Breath sounds). Pitting edema is a common side effect of amlodipine due to vasodilation. It can also lead to pulmonary edema, causing shortness of breath and crackles on auscultation. Therefore, assessing breath sounds is crucial to detect any signs of fluid overload and potential pulmonary complications. Bladder distention (A) is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Serum albumin level (B) may indicate protein status but is not immediately necessary in this case. Abdominal girth (C) is more indicative of ascites or abdominal distension, not directly related to the client's edema and possible pulmonary complications.
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The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
- B. Provide frequent mouth care
- C. Encourage small, frequent meals
- D. Offer clear liquids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic before meals. Administering an antiemetic before meals helps prevent and manage nausea associated with chemotherapy by blocking receptors that trigger nausea and vomiting. This intervention targets the root cause of the symptom. Providing frequent mouth care (B) may help with taste changes but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (C) and offering clear liquids (D) may be helpful for some clients, but they do not specifically target nausea caused by chemotherapy.
A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?
- A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
- B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
- C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
- D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 indicates deep unconsciousness, which is classified as a coma. A GCS score of 3 signifies the lowest possible level of consciousness and is associated with a very poor prognosis due to the severity of neurological impairment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increased intracranial pressure may be present in comatose patients but is not solely indicated by a GCS score of 3. A good prognosis is unlikely with a GCS score of 3. Being unconscious with a GCS score of 3 does not equate to being conscious but disoriented as in choice C.
While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
- B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
- C. Measure the length of the apneic periods
- D. Suction the client's oropharynx
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measure the length of the apneic periods. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations and guiding further interventions. By measuring the length of apneic periods, the nurse can determine the duration of respiratory pauses and their impact on oxygenation. This information helps in deciding the appropriate treatment, such as administering supplemental oxygen or notifying the healthcare provider. Elevating the head of the bed (choice A) can help with breathing but does not address the root cause. Auscultating breath sounds (choice B) is important but does not directly address the apneic periods. Suctioning the oropharynx (choice D) is not indicated unless there is an airway obstruction.
The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
- B. Teaching the client how to push effectively to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
- C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
- D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach ensures the safety and immediate accessibility of the client, which is the highest priority in nursing care. This intervention helps prevent falls or other accidents and allows the client to call for assistance if needed.
Choice B is incorrect because teaching pushing techniques is important but not the highest priority at this moment. Choice C, timing and recording uterine contractions, is also important but not the highest priority compared to ensuring the client's safety. Choice D, positioning for anesthesia distribution, is relevant but not as critical as ensuring immediate access to assistance in case of emergency.
A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with fluid volume overload. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- B. Presence of a cough
- C. Edema in the lower extremities
- D. Shortness of breath
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shortness of breath. This assessment finding is crucial in a client with CHF and fluid volume overload as it indicates potential worsening of heart failure leading to pulmonary congestion. Shortness of breath is a common symptom of fluid accumulation in the lungs, requiring immediate intervention to prevent respiratory distress.
A: Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours may indicate fluid retention but is not as urgent as shortness of breath.
B: Presence of a cough can be a symptom of CHF but is not as specific or concerning as shortness of breath.
C: Edema in the lower extremities is also a common finding in CHF but does not directly signify acute respiratory compromise as shortness of breath does.