Nokea
A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Ondansetron
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Promethazine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.
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A client asks the nurse how Rituximab works, which the client is receiving to treat Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia. Which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. Blocks hormone receptors
- B. Increases immune response
- C. Binds with specific antigens on tumor cells
- D. Stops DNA replication during cell division
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds with specific antigens on B-lymphocytes, leading to the destruction of cancer cells. In the context of Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia, Rituximab targets and destroys cancerous B-lymphocytes, which helps in treating the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rituximab does not block hormone receptors, increase immune response, or stop DNA replication during cell division. The primary mode of action of Rituximab is its binding with specific antigens on tumor cells, specifically B-lymphocytes, to elicit an immune response against cancerous cells.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as placing the client at risk for lactic acidosis?
- A. Metformin
- B. Metoprolol
- C. Lisinopril
- D. Insulin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is known to have a risk of causing lactic acidosis, particularly in clients with renal impairment or predisposing conditions. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin use that can be life-threatening. Metoprolol, Lisinopril, and Insulin do not have a known association with lactic acidosis. Healthcare professionals should monitor clients prescribed metformin carefully, especially those with risk factors, to detect and manage lactic acidosis promptly.
A client has a new prescription for Cyclobenzaprine to treat muscle spasms. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach for best results.
- C. Take this medication only when experiencing muscle pain.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods while taking this medication.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed Cyclobenzaprine is to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication. Cyclobenzaprine can cause drowsiness, so it is important to advise clients to avoid activities that require alertness and coordination to prevent accidents or injuries. Choice B is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing muscle pain. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Cyclobenzaprine.
What is a serious adverse reaction to penicillin?
- A. Liver Failure
- B. Anaphylaxis
- C. Respiratory Depression
- D. Edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur as a serious adverse reaction to penicillin. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Liver failure is not a typical adverse reaction to penicillin, respiratory depression is more commonly associated with opioid medications, and edema is not a common severe adverse reaction to penicillin.
A client has a new prescription for Bisacodyl. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before bedtime.
- B. Expect a rapid heart rate.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Expect rectal burning with the suppository form.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include when educating a client about Bisacodyl is to expect rectal burning with the suppository form. Bisacodyl, a stimulant laxative, is known to cause rectal burning when administered as a suppository. This side effect is common and expected, and it is important for the client to be aware of it to prevent unnecessary alarm or concern. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Bisacodyl before bedtime is not a common instruction; expecting a rapid heart rate is not a typical side effect of Bisacodyl; and increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not related to the use of Bisacodyl.