Nokea
A client receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for impaired skin integrity. Which intervention should be part of this client’s plan of care?
- A. Avoiding using a soap on the irradiated areas
- B. Applying talcum powder to the irradiated areas daily after bathing
- C. Wearing a lead apron during direct contact with the client
- D. Removing thoracic skin markings after each radiation treatment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas. This is because soap can irritate the skin, leading to skin breakdown in a client at risk for impaired skin integrity due to radiation therapy. Avoiding soap helps to prevent further damage to the skin.
Choice B is incorrect as talcum powder can further irritate the skin and should be avoided. Choice C is not relevant to preventing skin integrity issues. Choice D is incorrect because thoracic skin markings should not be removed as they are essential for accurate radiation delivery.
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Which of the following client outcomes best describes the parameters for achieving the outcome?
- A. The client will eat a well-balanced diet.
- B. The client will consume a 2,400-calorie diet, with three meals and two snacks, starting tomorrow.
- C. The client will cleanse his wound with soap and water and apply a dry sterile dressing.
- D. The client will be without pain in 24 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it provides specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) parameters for achieving the outcome. It outlines the calorie intake, meal frequency, and start date, which allows for clear monitoring and evaluation of progress. Choice A is too vague and lacks specificity. Choice C focuses on wound care, not dietary goals. Choice D lacks specificity and a timeframe, making it difficult to measure success. In conclusion, choice B is the best option as it aligns with effective goal-setting principles.
Which of the ff symptoms should a nurse assess in a client when implementing interventions for trauma to the upper airway?
- A. Pain when talking
- B. Increased nasal swelling
- C. Burning in the throat
- D. Presence of laryngospasm INFECTIONS OF THE LOWER RESPIRATORY AIRWAY
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of laryngospasm. Laryngospasm is a serious complication of trauma to the upper airway that can lead to airway obstruction. Assessing for laryngospasm is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Pain when talking (A) is more related to vocal cord injury, increased nasal swelling (B) is a symptom of nasal trauma, and burning in the throat (C) may indicate pharyngeal injury, but laryngospasm (D) directly affects airway patency in upper airway trauma cases.
Which part of the brain controls breathing?
- A. Medulla
- B. Cerebrum
- C. Cerebellum
- D. Thalamus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medulla. The medulla is located in the brainstem and plays a crucial role in controlling involuntary functions like breathing. It contains the respiratory center, which regulates the rate and depth of breathing. The medulla sends signals to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles to control breathing. The cerebrum (B) is responsible for higher brain functions, not breathing control. The cerebellum (C) coordinates movement and balance, not breathing. The thalamus (D) relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex, not involved in breathing regulation.
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
- A. abnormal vital signs. Have the patient transported to the radiology department for a scheduled x-ray, and
- B. review vital signs upon return.
- C. Ask the NAP to record the patient’s vital signs before administering medications.
- D. Omit the vital signs because the patient is presently in no distress.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C:
1. Safety First: Recording vital signs is crucial for patient safety. Asking the NAP to record vital signs ensures the patient's condition is monitored before administering medications.
2. Accountability: Nurses are responsible for ensuring accurate documentation of vital signs. Asking the NAP to record them maintains accountability within the healthcare team.
3. Communication: By requesting the NAP to record vital signs, the nurse fosters effective communication and collaboration in patient care.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Administering medications without reviewing vital signs could lead to adverse effects if there are abnormalities.
B: Reviewing vital signs upon return delays immediate action and could jeopardize patient safety.
D: Omitting vital signs neglects the essential monitoring required for patient care and could result in missed opportunities for early intervention.
What is the most important postoperative instruction the nurse must give a client who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?
- A. “Avoid drinking liquids until the gag reflex returns.”
- B. “Avoid eating milk products for 24 hours.”
- C. “Notify a nurse if you experience blood in your urine.”
- D. “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.” After a subarachnoid block, the client must remain lying down to prevent complications like spinal headaches due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage. This position helps maintain adequate spinal fluid pressure. Choice A is incorrect as fluid intake is important postoperatively. Choice B is not relevant to a subarachnoid block. Choice C is important but not the most crucial instruction compared to maintaining the supine position.