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A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the TPN infusion.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
- D. Administer oxygen at 2 liters/minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in Trendelenburg position. This is the first action to take in a client with suspected air embolism, a potential complication of central line insertion. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position with the head down and the legs elevated can help prevent air from reaching the heart and lungs. This action can help stabilize the client's condition before further interventions can be implemented.
Stopping the TPN infusion (choice A) can be important, but the priority in this situation is to address the potential air embolism. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after the immediate intervention. Administering oxygen (choice D) is important, but placing the client in Trendelenburg position takes precedence in this emergency situation.
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A client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is complaining of a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/minute, heart rate is 74 beats/minute, and temperature is 98.6º F. The client's fundus is firm and one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus. What action should the healthcare team implement first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
- B. Determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery.
- C. Assign a licensed nurse to reassess the client's vital signs.
- D. Obtain a STAT hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago and is now experiencing a severe headache, which could indicate postpartum preeclampsia. Checking if the client received anesthesia during delivery is crucial as certain types of anesthesia can increase the risk of postpartum preeclampsia. This step is important to determine if anesthesia is a contributing factor to the client's symptoms.
Option A is incorrect because immediate action is needed to address the client's symptoms related to anesthesia. Option C is incorrect as reassessing vital signs alone may not provide information specific to the client's headache. Option D is incorrect as obtaining a hemoglobin and hematocrit would not directly address the client's headache or potential anesthesia-related issues.
In which situation is it most important for the registered nurse (RN) working on a medical unit to provide direct supervision?
- A. A graduate nurse needs to access a client's implanted port to start an infusion of Ringer's Lactate.
- B. A postpartum nurse pulled to the unit needs to start a transfusion of packed red blood cells.
- C. A practical nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider with a lumbar puncture at the bedside.
- D. An unlicensed assistive personnel is preparing to weigh an obese bedfast client using a bed scale.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because accessing an implanted port for infusion is a specialized skill that requires direct supervision to ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure. Step 1: A graduate nurse may not have sufficient experience with accessing ports. Step 2: The RN needs to ensure proper technique and prevent complications. Step 3: Direct supervision allows for immediate intervention if any issues arise. Other choices are incorrect because B: starting a transfusion is within the scope of practice for a nurse, C: assisting with a lumbar puncture can be done under indirect supervision, and D: weighing a client is a task that can be delegated to unlicensed personnel with proper training.
When a client expresses, 'I don't know how I will go on' while discussing feelings related to a recent loss, the nurse remains silent. What is the most likely reason for the nurse's behavior?
- A. The nurse is indicating disapproval of the statement.
- B. The nurse is showing respect for the client's loss.
- C. Silence is mirroring the client's sadness.
- D. Silence enables the client to contemplate what was expressed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse's silence allows the client to reflect on and process their emotions after expressing uncertainty about the future. By remaining silent, the nurse gives the client space to explore their feelings and thoughts without interruption. This can help the client gain insight and come to terms with their emotions.
A: The nurse's silence does not indicate disapproval, as it is a common therapeutic technique.
B: While the nurse may be showing respect for the client's loss, the primary reason for the silence is to facilitate the client's reflection.
C: Although silence can sometimes mirror the client's emotions, the main purpose here is to enable contemplation rather than direct mirroring.
A client with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take this medication every morning before breakfast.
- B. I should have my thyroid levels checked regularly.
- C. If I lose weight, I may need an increased dose.
- D. I can stop taking this medication once my symptoms improve.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. Levothyroxine is a lifelong medication for hypothyroidism.
2. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to symptom relapse.
3. Symptoms improving doesn't indicate the underlying condition is resolved.
4. Regular monitoring and dose adjustments are crucial.
5. Choice D shows misunderstanding of treatment duration and necessity.
Summary:
A: Correct, taking in the morning maximizes absorption.
B: Correct, monitoring is necessary for dose adjustments.
C: Correct, weight loss can affect thyroid hormone levels.
D: Incorrect, as stopping medication prematurely is not advised.
A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?
- A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
- B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
- C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
- D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
Rationale:
1. The ECG rhythm shows regular narrow complex tachycardia, likely supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).
2. Adenosine is the first-line medication for terminating SVT by blocking conduction through the AV node.
3. Adenosine is given rapidly as a bolus dose followed by a saline flush to ensure quick delivery to the heart.
4. Adenosine has a very short half-life, making it safe to use in this scenario.
Summary:
A: Magnesium is not the first-line treatment for SVT.
B: Heparin is not indicated for the management of SVT.
D: Synchronized cardioversion is reserved for unstable patients with hemodynamic compromise, not indicated for stable SVT.