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In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
- B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
- C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100‚° F.
- D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten. This is crucial because the Braden scale assesses the client's risk for developing pressure ulcers. A score of ten indicates a very high risk, requiring frequent repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers.
Choice A is incorrect because 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities indicates fluid overload, not directly related to turning schedule planning.
Choice C is incorrect because warm, dry skin with a fever of 100‚° F suggests a possible infection, but does not affect the need for turning schedule planning.
Choice D is incorrect as hypoactive bowel sounds and infrequent bowel movements are related to gastrointestinal function, not directly impacting the turning schedule.
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A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?
- A. I will test my blood glucose level once a week.
- B. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is 70 mg/dl.
- C. If I feel shaky, I should take another dose of insulin.
- D. It's okay to skip a meal if I'm not hungry.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because eating a snack when blood glucose is 70 mg/dl helps prevent hypoglycemia. Testing blood glucose once a week (A) is not frequent enough for proper management. Taking extra insulin when shaky (C) can lead to hypoglycemia. Skipping meals (D) can cause unstable blood glucose levels.
The client has acute kidney injury (AKI). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Urine output of 50 ml in the last hour.
- B. Serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L.
- C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Hyperkalemia is a life-threatening condition in AKI. High potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed immediately. Choice A is concerning but not as critical as hyperkalemia. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, needs monitoring but does not require immediate intervention. Choice D, elevated serum creatinine, indicates kidney dysfunction but does not pose an immediate threat compared to hyperkalemia.
The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
- B. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension.
- C. Exophthalmos and tachycardia.
- D. Weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension. Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to low cortisol and aldosterone levels. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, causing melanin deposition. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, leading to sodium and water loss. Choice A is incorrect because Addison's disease does not typically present with hypertension or hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as exophthalmos and tachycardia are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common manifestations of Addison's disease.
When assessing a client reporting severe pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, which sign would most likely indicate appendicitis?
- A. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point.
- B. Positive Murphy's sign.
- C. Rovsing's sign.
- D. Cullen's sign.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point. McBurney's point is located in the right lower quadrant and is a classic sign of appendicitis. Rebound tenderness at this point indicates inflammation in the peritoneum, suggesting appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are not specific to appendicitis. Positive Murphy's sign is related to cholecystitis, Rovsing's sign is seen in acute appendicitis but is not as specific as rebound tenderness at McBurney's point, and Cullen's sign is associated with acute pancreatitis.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
- B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
- D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. The rationale is that metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further decrease heart rate. With a low apical pulse of 58 beats/minute, administering metoprolol can potentially cause bradycardia or further slow down the heart rate to dangerous levels. Holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider allows for further assessment and potential adjustment of the dosage or consideration of alternative treatments.
Incorrect choices:
A: Administering the medication as prescribed can lead to bradycardia and potential harm to the client.
C: Giving half the prescribed dose and rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes can still lead to further bradycardia and potential harm.
D: Administering the medication and then rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes is not appropriate as the initial pulse rate is already low, and waiting to recheck could lead to adverse effects before intervention.