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What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?
- A. Soft, spongy fundus.
- B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
- C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
- D. Unilateral lower leg pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pulse rate of 56 BPM. A normal finding for a primigravida client 12 hours postpartum would be a lower pulse rate as the body is recovering from childbirth. A pulse rate of 56 BPM is within the normal range for an adult.
A: Soft, spongy fundus would be a concerning finding as it could indicate uterine atony.
B: Saturating two perineal pads per hour would be excessive bleeding and could indicate postpartum hemorrhage.
D: Unilateral lower leg pain could be a sign of deep vein thrombosis, which is a potential complication postpartum.
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In which situation is it most important for the registered nurse (RN) working on a medical unit to provide direct supervision?
- A. A graduate nurse needs to access a client's implanted port to start an infusion of Ringer's Lactate.
- B. A postpartum nurse pulled to the unit needs to start a transfusion of packed red blood cells.
- C. A practical nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider with a lumbar puncture at the bedside.
- D. An unlicensed assistive personnel is preparing to weigh an obese bedfast client using a bed scale.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because accessing an implanted port for infusion is a specialized skill that requires direct supervision to ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure. Step 1: A graduate nurse may not have sufficient experience with accessing ports. Step 2: The RN needs to ensure proper technique and prevent complications. Step 3: Direct supervision allows for immediate intervention if any issues arise. Other choices are incorrect because B: starting a transfusion is within the scope of practice for a nurse, C: assisting with a lumbar puncture can be done under indirect supervision, and D: weighing a client is a task that can be delegated to unlicensed personnel with proper training.
A client with myelogenous leukemia is receiving an autologous bone marrow transplantation (BMT). What is the priority intervention that the nurse should implement when the bone marrow is repopulating?
- A. Administer sargramostim (Leukine, Prokine).
- B. Infuse PRBC and platelet transfusions.
- C. Give parenteral prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Maintain a protective isolation environment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain a protective isolation environment. During bone marrow repopulation after transplantation, the client is at high risk of infection due to compromised immune function. By maintaining a protective isolation environment, the nurse can minimize the risk of exposure to pathogens that could lead to infections. This intervention helps prevent potential complications and supports the client's recovery.
Rationale for other choices:
A: Administering sargramostim may enhance white blood cell production but does not directly address the risk of infection during bone marrow repopulation.
B: Infusing PRBC and platelet transfusions may be necessary for managing anemia and thrombocytopenia but does not address the priority of infection prevention.
C: Giving prophylactic antibiotics may be beneficial in some cases, but maintaining a protective isolation environment is the priority to reduce the risk of infection in this immunocompromised client.
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Tardive dyskinesia.
- B. Orthostatic hypotension.
- C. Photosensitivity.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic known to cause extrapyramidal side effects, including tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by involuntary repetitive movements of the face and body. This side effect is a serious concern due to its potential to be irreversible. Monitoring for tardive dyskinesia is crucial in clients taking haloperidol to detect and manage symptoms promptly.
Explanation for incorrect choices:
B: Orthostatic hypotension - This side effect is more commonly associated with other antipsychotic medications, particularly second-generation ones.
C: Photosensitivity - Haloperidol does not typically cause photosensitivity as a side effect.
D: Hyperglycemia - While some antipsychotic medications may lead to metabolic side effects like hyperglycemia, haloperidol is not typically associated with this specific side effect.
When a client expresses, 'I don't know how I will go on' while discussing feelings related to a recent loss, the nurse remains silent. What is the most likely reason for the nurse's behavior?
- A. The nurse is indicating disapproval of the statement.
- B. The nurse is showing respect for the client's loss.
- C. Silence is mirroring the client's sadness.
- D. Silence enables the client to contemplate what was expressed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse's silence allows the client to reflect on and process their emotions after expressing uncertainty about the future. By remaining silent, the nurse gives the client space to explore their feelings and thoughts without interruption. This can help the client gain insight and come to terms with their emotions.
A: The nurse's silence does not indicate disapproval, as it is a common therapeutic technique.
B: While the nurse may be showing respect for the client's loss, the primary reason for the silence is to facilitate the client's reflection.
C: Although silence can sometimes mirror the client's emotions, the main purpose here is to enable contemplation rather than direct mirroring.
A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
- B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
- C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
- D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a non-confrontational and calming approach to de-escalate the situation. It helps redirect the client's focus and encourages self-regulation. Choice A may reinforce the aggressive behavior by rewarding it. Choice B (putting behavior on extinction) may escalate the situation further. Choice C (decreasing TV volume) does not address the client's behavior directly.