A client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is complaining of a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/minute, heart rate is 74 beats/minute, and temperature is 98.6º F. The client's fundus is firm and one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus. What action should the healthcare team implement first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
- B. Determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery.
- C. Assign a licensed nurse to reassess the client's vital signs.
- D. Obtain a STAT hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago and is now experiencing a severe headache, which could indicate postpartum preeclampsia. Checking if the client received anesthesia during delivery is crucial as certain types of anesthesia can increase the risk of postpartum preeclampsia. This step is important to determine if anesthesia is a contributing factor to the client's symptoms.
Option A is incorrect because immediate action is needed to address the client's symptoms related to anesthesia. Option C is incorrect as reassessing vital signs alone may not provide information specific to the client's headache. Option D is incorrect as obtaining a hemoglobin and hematocrit would not directly address the client's headache or potential anesthesia-related issues.
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A client with myelogenous leukemia is receiving an autologous bone marrow transplantation (BMT). What is the priority intervention that the nurse should implement when the bone marrow is repopulating?
- A. Administer sargramostim (Leukine, Prokine).
- B. Infuse PRBC and platelet transfusions.
- C. Give parenteral prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Maintain a protective isolation environment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain a protective isolation environment. During bone marrow repopulation after transplantation, the client is at high risk of infection due to compromised immune function. By maintaining a protective isolation environment, the nurse can minimize the risk of exposure to pathogens that could lead to infections. This intervention helps prevent potential complications and supports the client's recovery.
Rationale for other choices:
A: Administering sargramostim may enhance white blood cell production but does not directly address the risk of infection during bone marrow repopulation.
B: Infusing PRBC and platelet transfusions may be necessary for managing anemia and thrombocytopenia but does not address the priority of infection prevention.
C: Giving prophylactic antibiotics may be beneficial in some cases, but maintaining a protective isolation environment is the priority to reduce the risk of infection in this immunocompromised client.
Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?
- A. A client with GI bleeding who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7 grams.
- B. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl today and had 160 mg/dl yesterday.
- C. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.
- D. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count < 500 today and had 2,000 yesterday.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with an absolute neutrophil count < 500 is at high risk for serious infections due to severe neutropenia. Neutrophils are crucial for fighting infections, and a low count puts the client at immediate risk. Therefore, intervention is required to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice A: A hemoglobin of 7 grams in a client with GI bleeding receiving a blood transfusion indicates anemia, but it does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic.
Choice B: A fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl in a client with pancreatitis is elevated but does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic or experiencing complications.
Choice C: A bilirubin level 4 times the normal value in a jaundiced client with hepatitis is concerning but does not require immediate intervention unless there are signs of severe liver dysfunction or complications.
A client who has Type 1 diabetes and is at 10-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic complaining of a headache, nausea, sweating, feeling shaky, and being tired all the time. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the blood glucose level.
- B. Draw blood for a Hemoglobin A1C.
- C. Assess urine for ketone levels.
- D. Provide the client with a protein snack.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Check the blood glucose level. This is the first action the nurse should take because the client is presenting with symptoms of hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening for a pregnant woman with Type 1 diabetes. By checking the blood glucose level, the nurse can determine if the client's symptoms are due to low blood sugar levels and take appropriate action. Drawing blood for a Hemoglobin A1C (choice B) is not the first priority in this acute situation. Assessing urine for ketone levels (choice C) is important in managing diabetes but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of hypoglycemia. Providing the client with a protein snack (choice D) may help raise blood sugar levels, but checking the blood glucose level is essential to determine the appropriate intervention.
The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
- A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
- C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
- D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer pain medication as prescribed. This is the highest priority because acute pancreatitis is a painful condition, and managing pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain control also helps reduce stress on the pancreas and can aid in preventing complications.
Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels is important in diagnosing pancreatitis and assessing response to treatment, it is not the highest priority intervention.
Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral intake of clear liquids may exacerbate pancreatitis symptoms and lead to further complications.
Choice D is incorrect as assessing bowel sounds, while important for monitoring gastrointestinal function, is not the highest priority in the acute management of pancreatitis.
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Limit your fluid intake while on this medication.
- C. Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly.
- D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly. This is important because metformin helps lower blood sugar levels, and monitoring glucose levels helps ensure the medication is effective and the client is not experiencing hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option A is incorrect because metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin does not typically require fluid restriction. Option D is incorrect as metformin does not affect potassium levels. Regularly monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for managing type 2 diabetes effectively.
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