Nokea
The client with newly diagnosed osteoporosis is being taught by the nurse about dietary modifications. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of high-calcium foods.
- B. Limit your intake of vitamin D-rich foods.
- C. Avoid foods high in phosphorus.
- D. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase your intake of high-calcium foods. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density, and calcium is essential for bone health. Increasing calcium intake can help strengthen bones and prevent further bone loss. Foods high in calcium, such as dairy products, leafy green vegetables, and fortified foods, are beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.
Summary of other choices:
B: Limiting intake of vitamin D-rich foods is not advised, as vitamin D plays a crucial role in calcium absorption and bone health.
C: Avoiding foods high in phosphorus is not necessary, as phosphorus is also important for bone health and overall body function.
D: Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended, as high sodium intake can lead to calcium loss from the bones, worsening osteoporosis.
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A healthcare professional is interested in studying the incidence of infant death in a particular city and wants to compare that city's rate to the state's rate. What state resource is most likely to provide this information?
- A. Disease registry.
- B. Department of Health.
- C. Bureau of Vital Statistics.
- D. Census data.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bureau of Vital Statistics. The Bureau of Vital Statistics is responsible for maintaining records on births, deaths, and other vital events in a particular region. Therefore, it is the most likely state resource to provide information on infant death rates. Disease registry (A) typically focuses on specific diseases rather than overall mortality rates. Department of Health (B) may have some data but may not specifically focus on vital statistics. Census data (D) provides population demographics but does not specifically track infant death rates.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
- B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
- C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
- D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula. A bruit and thrill indicate proper blood flow through the AV fistula, essential for successful hemodialysis. Absence of these sounds can indicate AV fistula malfunction, leading to inadequate dialysis. Redness, pain, and swelling are common complications of AV fistula placement but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or accompanied by other symptoms like fever or pus drainage. Reporting the absence of a bruit or thrill promptly allows for timely intervention to prevent complications and ensure effective dialysis.
The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
- B. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension.
- C. Exophthalmos and tachycardia.
- D. Weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension. Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to low cortisol and aldosterone levels. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, causing melanin deposition. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, leading to sodium and water loss. Choice A is incorrect because Addison's disease does not typically present with hypertension or hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as exophthalmos and tachycardia are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common manifestations of Addison's disease.
Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?
- A. Client denies allergies to contrast media.
- B. Skin prep to insertion site completed.
- C. On-call sedation administered.
- D. Oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C, on-call sedation administered, is the correct answer because sedation is essential for bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and cooperative during the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety and discomfort, making the procedure more tolerable. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly indicate readiness for the procedure. Denying allergies to contrast media (A) is important but not specific to bronchoscopy readiness. Skin prep completion (B) is part of the pre-procedure preparation but does not confirm readiness. Oxygen administration (D) is a routine care measure and does not indicate readiness for bronchoscopy.
A male client is admitted to the neurological unit. He has just sustained a C-5 spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding of this client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Is unable to feel sensation in the arms and hands.
- B. Has flaccid upper and lower extremities.
- C. Blood pressure is 110/70 and the apical pulse is 68.
- D. Respirations are shallow, labored, and 14 breaths/minute.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because shallow, labored respirations at 14 breaths/minute indicate potential respiratory distress in a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury. This level of injury compromises the function of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, leading to impaired respiratory effort. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure and subsequent complications. Choices A and B are common findings in clients with spinal cord injuries and do not require immediate intervention. Choice C indicates stable vital signs within normal range, which do not necessitate immediate action.