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A client taking atorvastatin has an increased serum creatine phosphokinase (CK) level. What should the nurse assess the client for?
- A. Excessive bruising.
- B. Peripheral edema.
- C. Muscle tenderness.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevated CK with atorvastatin indicates possible myopathy, causing muscle tenderness (C). Bruising (A) is unrelated to CK. Edema (B) suggests other causes. Nausea/vomiting (D) are gastrointestinal side effects, not linked to CK.
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A patient who is taking albendazole reports experiencing fatigue, nausea, and dark urine. The nurse observes a yellowing of the patient’s skin and sclera. Which laboratory result should the nurse review?
- A. Thyroid function test.
- B. Liver function test.
- C. Renal function panel.
- D. Basic metabolic panel.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albendazole can cause hepatotoxicity, indicated by fatigue, nausea, dark urine, and jaundice. Reviewing liver function tests (B) assesses damage. Thyroid (A), renal (C), and metabolic panels (D) are unrelated to these symptoms.
An adult patient at an outpatient clinic has been prescribed the antibiotic tetracycline HCl. What instructions should the nurse include in the patient’s teaching plan?
- A. Consume with milk or antacids to prevent gastrointestinal irritation.
- B. Protect your skin from sunlight while on this medication.
- C. Enhance gastrointestinal absorption by taking with orange juice.
- D. Return to the clinic weekly for serum drug level checks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This question is identical to Question 9. Tetracycline increases photosensitivity, requiring sun protection (B). Milk/antacids (A) and orange juice (C) impair absorption. Weekly drug checks (D) are unnecessary. Note: Duplicate question; consider removing.
Which nursing action has the highest priority when administering a dose of codeine with acetaminophen to a client?
- A. Instruct the client to request assistance when ambulating to the bathroom.
- B. Administer a stool softener/laxative at the same time as the analgesic.
- C. Tell the client to notify the nurse if the pain is not relieved.
- D. Advise the client that the medication should start to work in about 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Codeine, an opioid, causes drowsiness and dizziness, increasing fall risk. Instructing the client to request assistance when ambulating (A) is the highest priority for safety. Stool softeners (B) address constipation but are secondary. Notifying about unrelieved pain (C) and onset time (D) are important but not immediate safety concerns.
A patient is receiving a secondary infusion of azithromycin 500 mg in 500 mL of normal saline (NS) to be infused over 2 hours. The intravenous (IV) administration set delivers 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse regulate the infusion?
Correct Answer: 42
Rationale: Infusion rate: 500 mL / 2 hr = 250 mL/hr. Drops per minute: (250 mL/hr × 10 gtt/mL) / 60 min = 41.67, rounded to 42 gtt/min. This ensures accurate delivery of azithromycin.
A patient with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse about the duration of use for the prescribed eye drops. What is the nurse’s accurate response?
- A. For long-term control of pain and swelling.
- B. Until a smaller angle can be restored.
- C. Until the excess pressure is reduced.
- D. For long-term control of normal eye pressure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Open-angle glaucoma requires lifelong eye drops to maintain normal intraocular pressure (D). They don’t control pain/swelling (A) or restore angles (B). Pressure reduction (C) is ongoing, not temporary.