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A client who has been on bed rest for several days is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated.
- B. Apply antiembolism stockings as prescribed.
- C. Elevate the client's legs on a pillow.
- D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises daily.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Applying antiembolism stockings as prescribed (B) is an effective intervention to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client on bed rest. While encouraging ambulation (A), elevating the legs (C), and performing passive range-of-motion exercises (D) are also beneficial, compression stockings are particularly effective in reducing the risk of DVT by promoting venous return and reducing stasis in the lower extremities.
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Mr. Landon is scheduled to undergo a tracheostomy. Which nursing action is essential during tracheal suctioning?
- A. Using a water-soluble lubricant.
- B. Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning.
- C. Ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion.
- D. Assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position during suctioning.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning is crucial to prevent hypoxia, which can occur during tracheal suctioning. Hypoxia can lead to serious complications, making the provision of oxygen essential in maintaining adequate oxygenation levels for the patient undergoing tracheal suctioning. Choice A is incorrect because using a water-soluble lubricant is not directly related to the essential nursing action during tracheal suctioning. Choice C is incorrect as ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion is a basic requirement and not the essential action for oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect because assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position is beneficial for comfort and airway alignment but is not as crucial as administering oxygen to prevent hypoxia.
While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.
Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?
- A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
- B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
- C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
- D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.
The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?
- A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
- B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
- C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
- D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct transfer procedure for an elderly client with left-sided weakness involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. Using the stronger side, the right side, for weight-bearing during the transfer is the safest approach to prevent falls or injuries. Placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving can lead to poor body mechanics and increase the risk of accidents. Assisting the client to a standing position and having the client pivot to the left are not recommended for a client with left-sided weakness as it can compromise safety and stability during the transfer.
The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been 'wetting the bed' since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Reassure the father that it is normal for a child to wet the bed after a traumatic event
- B. Inform the father that nocturnal emissions are abnormal and his son is developmentally delayed
- C. Inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma
- D. Refer the father and the client to a psychologist
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bedwetting after trauma, such as losing a parent, is common in children. The nurse should inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma. Reassurance and understanding are essential in addressing the child's emotional needs during this difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on puberty rather than trauma as the underlying cause. Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about nocturnal emissions and developmental delay. Choice D is premature as the first step should be to provide education and support before considering a referral to a psychologist.