A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Massage the calf and foot
- B. Elevate the leg above the heart
- C. Check the pedal pulse in the affected leg
- D. Extend the leg and flex the foot
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client in active labor complaining of a leg cramp is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps stretch the muscles that are cramping, providing relief. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective for relieving the cramp. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not indicated for a leg cramp. Checking the pedal pulse in the affected leg (Choice C) is unrelated to addressing the leg cramp.
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After a hip replacement surgery, a client is instructed to use an abduction pillow while in bed. What is the primary purpose of this device?
- A. To reduce the risk of blood clots.
- B. To prevent hip dislocation.
- C. To improve circulation in the legs.
- D. To alleviate pain and discomfort.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of using an abduction pillow after hip replacement surgery is to prevent hip dislocation. The abduction pillow keeps the legs separated, which reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing excessive internal rotation and adduction of the hip joint. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the main goal of using the abduction pillow is to maintain proper positioning and stability of the hip joint to prevent dislocation, rather than addressing blood clots, circulation, or pain relief.
Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?
- A. Serotonin
- B. Dopamine
- C. GABA
- D. Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.
When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?
- A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
- B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
- C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
- D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.
A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
The PN assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the PN provide the UAP?
- A. Assist the client with a hot bath
- B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
- C. Face the client directly when speaking
- D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis, it is important to encourage self-care to maintain the client's independence. Allowing rest periods helps prevent fatigue, which is crucial in managing MS exacerbations. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can exacerbate symptoms in MS. Choice C is about communication techniques and not directly related to client care during an exacerbation. Choice D is not a priority intervention during an MS exacerbation.