Nokea
A client who is HIV positive should have the mouth examined for which oral problem common associated with AIDS?
- A. Halitosis
- B. Creamy white patches
- C. Carious teeth
- D. Swollen lips
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Creamy white patches. These patches are indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection seen in individuals with weakened immune systems like those with AIDS. This infection is caused by Candida albicans. It presents as white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth. Halitosis (A) is bad breath, not specific to AIDS. Carious teeth (C) refers to cavities, not directly related to AIDS. Swollen lips (D) can be a symptom of various oral conditions, but not specific to AIDS. In summary, creamy white patches are a characteristic oral problem associated with AIDS due to opportunistic infections like oral thrush.
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A client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6 weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:
- A. E-rosette immunofluorescence
- B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
- C. Quantification of T-lymphocytes (ELISA)
- D. Western blot test with ELISA
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the Western blot test with ELISA. First, ELISA is used as a screening test for HIV antibodies. If positive, a confirmatory test like Western blot is needed to detect specific antibodies. Western blot is highly specific and confirms the presence of HIV antibodies. E-rosette immunofluorescence is not typically used for HIV diagnosis. Quantification of T-lymphocytes is used to monitor disease progression in HIV but does not confirm HIV infection. ELISA alone is not confirmatory; it needs to be followed by a more specific test like Western blot.
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
- A. Risk
- B. Problem focused
- C. Health promotion
- D. Collaborative problem
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. The nurse wrote a diagnosis related to enhancing the patient's urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, which focuses on promoting the patient's health and well-being. The Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination diagnosis indicates the patient's motivation and readiness to improve their urinary elimination abilities, aligning with the concept of health promotion. This type of diagnosis acknowledges the patient's potential for growth and improvement in their health status.
Incorrect choices:
A: Risk - This choice would be more appropriate if the diagnosis focused on potential complications or adverse events related to the patient's urinary elimination abilities.
B: Problem focused - This choice would be suitable if the diagnosis identified an existing issue or problem with the patient's urinary elimination abilities that needed to be addressed.
D: Collaborative problem - This choice would be relevant if the diagnosis required collaboration between healthcare providers to manage the patient's urinary elimination abilities effectively.
At a public health fair, a nurse discusses the dangers of sun exposure. Prolonged sun exposure has been blamed for which form of cancer?
- A. Malignant melanoma
- B. Basal cell epithelioma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Malignant melanoma, basal cell epithelioma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all types of skin cancer associated with prolonged sun exposure. Melanoma is the most dangerous form, while basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are more common but less aggressive. Sun exposure can lead to DNA damage in skin cells, increasing the risk of developing these types of cancers. Therefore, all three choices are correct as they are all linked to sun exposure. The other choices are incorrect because each type of skin cancer mentioned can be caused by prolonged sun exposure, so selecting any one of them individually would not fully capture the scope of the risks associated with sun exposure.
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50.
2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland.
3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment.
4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer.
5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer.
6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
To return a patient with hyponatremia to normal sodium levels, it is safer to restrict fluid intake than to administer sodium:
- A. In patients who are unconscious
- B. In patients who show neurologic
- C. To prevent fluid overload symptoms
- D. To prevent dehydration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Hyponatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by low sodium levels in the blood.
Step 2: Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilution of sodium in the blood, aiding in correcting hyponatremia.
Step 3: Administering sodium can lead to rapid correction, risking osmotic demyelination syndrome.
Step 4: Choice C is correct as it aligns with the goal of managing hyponatremia by preventing fluid overload symptoms.
Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of correcting low sodium levels in hyponatremia.