Nokea
Mr. Reyes is extremely confused. The nurse provide new information slowly and in small amounts because;
- A. Confusion or delirium can be a defense against further stress
- B. Destruction of brain cells has occurred, interrupting mental activity
- C. Teaching based on information progressing from the simple to the complex
- D. A minimum of information should be given, since he is unaware of surrounding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When someone is extremely confused, providing new information slowly and in small amounts can help prevent overwhelming stress and further confusion. This approach allows the individual to process information more effectively and reduces the risk of escalating confusion or delirium as a defense mechanism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because destruction of brain cells, teaching progression, and giving minimal information are not directly related to managing confusion in this scenario.
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During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the client has breast cancer?
- A. Slight asymmetry of the breasts
- B. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin
- C. Bloody discharge from the nipple
- D. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is a classic sign of breast cancer. This finding is concerning as it indicates an abnormal growth that has invaded surrounding tissues. Dimpling occurs due to fibrotic changes pulling on the skin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A slight asymmetry of the breasts is common and not necessarily indicative of cancer. Bloody discharge from the nipple can be a sign of other conditions like intraductal papilloma. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle are likely benign fibrocystic changes.
Which of the ff is the most severe complication among clients with allergies, regardless of type?
- A. Bronchitis
- B. Anaphylactic shock and angioneurotic
- C. Cardiac arrest edema
- D. Asthma and nasal polyps
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, anaphylactic shock and angioedema, as it is the most severe complication of allergies and can be life-threatening. Anaphylactic shock can lead to airway constriction, severe drop in blood pressure, and organ failure. Angioedema can cause swelling of the face, lips, and throat, leading to difficulty breathing. Bronchitis (A) is a respiratory condition that can occur due to allergies but is not typically life-threatening. Cardiac arrest (C) is a serious complication but not directly related to allergies. Asthma and nasal polyps (D) are common allergic conditions but are not as immediately life-threatening as anaphylactic shock.
To return a patient with hyponatremia to normal sodium levels, it is safer to restrict fluid intake than to administer sodium:
- A. In patients who are unconscious
- B. In patients who show neurologic
- C. To prevent fluid overload symptoms
- D. To prevent dehydration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Hyponatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by low sodium levels in the blood.
Step 2: Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilution of sodium in the blood, aiding in correcting hyponatremia.
Step 3: Administering sodium can lead to rapid correction, risking osmotic demyelination syndrome.
Step 4: Choice C is correct as it aligns with the goal of managing hyponatremia by preventing fluid overload symptoms.
Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of correcting low sodium levels in hyponatremia.
Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate after a lumbar puncture?
- A. Have the patient lie flat for 6 to 8 hours
- B. Keep the patient from eating or drinking for 4 hours
- C. Monitor the patient’s pedal pulses q4h
- D. Keep the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees for 24 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have the patient lie flat for 6 to 8 hours after a lumbar puncture to prevent complications like post-lumbar puncture headache. Lying flat helps maintain CSF pressure and reduce the risk of leakage.
B: Keeping the patient from eating or drinking for 4 hours is not necessary after a lumbar puncture.
C: Monitoring pedal pulses q4h is irrelevant to post-lumbar puncture care.
D: Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees for 24 hours is not recommended after a lumbar puncture as it may increase the risk of complications.
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50.
2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland.
3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment.
4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer.
5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer.
6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.