Nokea
The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
- A. 24 hours
- B. 7 to 14 days
- C. 2 to 4 days
- D. 21 to 28 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.
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Which of the following is most important discharge teaching for Mr. Dela Isla
- A. Emergency Numbers
- B. Relaxation technique
- C. Drug Compliance
- D. Dietary prescription SITUATION: Mr. Franco, 70 years old, suddenly could not lift his spoons nor speak at breakfast. He was rushed to the hospital unconscious. His diagnosis was CVA.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drug Compliance. After a CVA (stroke), it is crucial for Mr. Dela Isla to understand and adhere to his prescribed medications. Medications help prevent further strokes and manage underlying conditions. Drug compliance ensures optimal treatment outcomes. Emergency Numbers (A) are important but not the priority post-stroke. Relaxation techniques (B) may be helpful but not as critical as medication adherence. Dietary prescription (D) is important but not as urgent as drug compliance in this scenario.
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
- A. Risk
- B. Problem focused
- C. Health promotion
- D. Collaborative problem
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. This type of diagnosis focuses on improving the client's well-being and maximizing their health potential. By adding Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination to the care plan, the nurse acknowledges the patient's willingness to learn self-catheterization, which aligns with health promotion. Other choices are incorrect because: A (Risk) implies potential harm, B (Problem focused) focuses on current issues, and D (Collaborative problem) involves multiple healthcare providers working together on a specific problem.
To return a patient with hyponatremia to normal sodium levels, it is safer to restrict fluid intake than to administer sodium:
- A. In patients who are unconscious
- B. In patients who show neurologic
- C. To prevent fluid overload symptoms
- D. To prevent dehydration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Hyponatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by low sodium levels in the blood.
Step 2: Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilution of sodium in the blood, aiding in correcting hyponatremia.
Step 3: Administering sodium can lead to rapid correction, risking osmotic demyelination syndrome.
Step 4: Choice C is correct as it aligns with the goal of managing hyponatremia by preventing fluid overload symptoms.
Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of correcting low sodium levels in hyponatremia.
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?
- A. Begin with introductions.
- B. Ask about the chief concerns or problems.
- C. Explain that the interview will be over in a few minutes.
- D. Tell the patient “I will be back to administer medications in 1 hour.”
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems.
Rationale: After setting the agenda, the nurse should proceed by asking about the patient's chief concerns or problems to gather relevant information and focus the interview on the patient's needs. This step helps establish rapport and ensures the patient is actively involved in the conversation.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Beginning with introductions is important, but after setting the agenda, it is more crucial to address the patient's concerns.
C: Explaining that the interview will be over in a few minutes is not appropriate as it may rush the patient and hinder open communication.
D: Telling the patient about administering medications in 1 hour is not relevant at this stage and does not address the patient's immediate needs.
The following are known to be causes of hepatitis except:
- A. virus
- B. toxin
- C. bacteria
- D. chemicals and drugs
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacteria. Hepatitis is primarily caused by viruses (such as Hepatitis A, B, C), toxins (like alcohol or certain medications), and chemicals/drugs. Bacteria do not typically cause hepatitis as it is a viral infection that affects the liver. Therefore, choice C is the exception among the listed causes. Viruses directly target liver cells, toxins can damage the liver, and certain chemicals/drugs can lead to liver inflammation. Hence, bacteria do not play a significant role in causing hepatitis.