Nokea
A client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery has an eviscerated wound. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Cover the incision with a moist sterile dressing.
- B. Notify the surgeon immediately.
- C. Assess the client's vital signs.
- D. Place the client in a supine position with knees bent.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take after discovering a client's eviscerated wound is to cover the incision with a moist sterile dressing. This step is crucial to protect the exposed tissue, prevent infection, and create a conducive environment for healing. While notifying the surgeon is important, addressing the wound immediately takes precedence. Assessing vital signs is essential but should follow the immediate intervention of covering the wound. Placing the client in a supine position with knees bent is not the priority in managing an eviscerated wound; the first step is to cover the wound to protect the exposed tissue.
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The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line that has infiltrated. What is the most appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional to take?
- A. Apply a warm compress to the affected area.
- B. Discontinue the IV and restart it in another site.
- C. Aspirate the IV line and flush it with normal saline.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial action when an IV line infiltrates is to discontinue the IV and restart it in another site. This is crucial to prevent complications such as tissue damage, phlebitis, and infection that can result from the infiltration. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) is not recommended as it can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by the infiltration. Aspirating the IV line and flushing it with normal saline (Choice C) is not appropriate for an infiltrated IV line as it does not address the main issue of infiltration. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, the immediate priority is to discontinue the infiltrated IV to prevent further harm and ensure proper delivery of fluids or medications.
When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Coagulation time
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.
A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regime. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
- B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
- C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
- D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?
- A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
- D. Simvastatin (Zocor)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.
During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?
- A. "I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up."
- B. "I will insert the needle into the client's skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up."
- C. "I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle."
- D. "I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.