Nokea
A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Decreased fetal movement
- B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
- C. Postmaturity
- D. All of the Above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the Above.
1. Decreased fetal movement indicates fetal distress, necessitating CST.
2. IUGR implies potential placental insufficiency, requiring CST evaluation.
3. Postmaturity increases risk of placental insufficiency, warranting CST.
Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly indicate the need for CST in a pregnant client.
You may also like to solve these questions
When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?
- A. Blood-tinged sputum
- B. Dizziness
- C. Pallor
- D. Somnolence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dizziness. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension, leading to dizziness. This is a common side effect and needs to be monitored to prevent falls or injury. Blood-tinged sputum (A) is not typically associated with nifedipine use. Pallor (C) is not a common manifestation of nifedipine side effects. Somnolence (D) is also not a common side effect of nifedipine. Dizziness is the most relevant and potentially harmful manifestation to monitor for in a client receiving nifedipine for preterm labor.
A healthcare provider is assessing fetal heart tones for a pregnant client. The provider has determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the client's abdomen should the provider apply the ultrasound transducer to assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart?
- A. Left upper quadrant
- B. Right upper quadrant
- C. Left lower quadrant
- D. Right lower quadrant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, left lower quadrant. In the left occipital anterior fetal position, the fetus's back is on the left side of the mother's abdomen. To assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart tones, the ultrasound transducer should be applied to the area closest to the fetal back, which is the left lower quadrant. Applying the transducer in this area allows for optimal detection of the fetal heart sounds. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not in proximity to the fetal back in the left occipital anterior position, leading to suboptimal detection of fetal heart tones.
When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Betamethasone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that promotes fetal lung maturity by stimulating the production of surfactant, essential for lung function.
Step 2: At 32 weeks, the fetus may benefit from accelerated lung development to reduce respiratory distress.
Step 3: Calcium gluconate is used for hypocalcemia, not for fetal lung maturity.
Step 4: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to delay preterm labor, not for lung maturity.
Step 5: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker to prevent preterm labor, not for fetal lung maturity.
A client who is postpartum is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. For which of the following clinical manifestations should the client be instructed to monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Persistent abdominal striae
- B. Temperature 37.8° C (100.2° F)
- C. Unilateral breast pain
- D. Brownish-red discharge on day 5
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Unilateral breast pain in a postpartum client can indicate mastitis, a bacterial infection of the breast tissue. This requires prompt medical attention to prevent complications like abscess formation.
Other Choices:
A: Abdominal striae are normal after pregnancy and don't require immediate intervention.
B: Mild temperature elevation is common postpartum and doesn't necessarily indicate infection.
D: Brownish-red discharge on day 5 is typically normal lochia and not concerning unless foul-smelling or accompanied by fever.
A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
- B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
- C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
- D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because continuing to take insulin during nausea and vomiting is crucial for maintaining blood glucose control in clients with diabetes. Nausea and vomiting can lead to decreased food intake, risking hypoglycemia if insulin is not adjusted.
Choice A is incorrect because fasting blood glucose levels should ideally be maintained between 60-90 mg/dL in pregnant clients with diabetes for optimal outcomes, not 100-120 mg/dL.
Choice B is incorrect because engaging in moderate exercise when blood glucose is high (250 or higher) can exacerbate hyperglycemia rather than help in lowering blood glucose levels.
Choice D is incorrect because avoiding exercise when blood glucose exceeds 250 is not recommended. Exercise can help lower blood glucose levels and improve insulin sensitivity.