A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, the nurse should assign highest priority to:
- A. Helping the client cope with body image
- B. Maintaining a patent airway.
- C. Preventing injury.
- D. Ensuring adequate nutrition.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintaining a patent airway. This is the highest priority because the client with esophageal cancer is at risk for airway obstruction due to difficulty swallowing. Maintaining a patent airway ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation, which are vital for the client's survival. Without a clear airway, the client may experience respiratory distress or failure. Body image, preventing injury, and ensuring adequate nutrition are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over maintaining a patent airway in this situation.
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Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse expect to see in a plan of care for a client in sickle cell crisis?
- A. Imbalanced nutrition:Less than body requirements related to poor intake
- B. Disturbed sleep pattern related to external stimuli
- C. Impaired skin integrity related to pruritus
- D. Pain related to sickle cell crisis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pain related to sickle cell crisis. In a sickle cell crisis, the client experiences severe pain due to the sickling of red blood cells, which causes blockages in blood vessels. This pain is the hallmark symptom of sickle cell crisis and is a priority nursing diagnosis. The other choices are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary issue of sickle cell crisis. Imbalanced nutrition is not typically a priority during a crisis, disturbed sleep pattern is not a common symptom, and impaired skin integrity is not a prominent concern in sickle cell crisis.
Usually, how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided?
- A. Most comfortable walking and moving about
- B. Sleeps for a period of time
- C. Becomes restless and agitated
- D. Say he is thirsty and hungry
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sleeps for a period of time. After a seizure, the brain and body experience fatigue and exhaustion. It is common for the patient to feel drowsy and require rest to recover. This post-ictal state is characterized by sleepiness and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because typically, after a seizure, the patient is not most comfortable walking and moving about (A), does not become restless and agitated (C), and may not immediately express thirst and hunger (D). It is important to ensure the patient is in a safe environment and allow them to rest after a seizure episode.
Which of the ff should the nurse identify as the earliest symptom of heart failure in many older clients?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Dyspnea on exertion
- C. Swollen joints
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea on exertion. In older clients, dyspnea on exertion is often the earliest symptom of heart failure due to decreased cardiac reserve. This occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's demands during physical activity. Increased urine output (A) is not typically an early symptom of heart failure. Swollen joints (C) are more indicative of arthritis or inflammation, not necessarily heart failure. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typical early symptoms of heart failure and are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues.
When can a donor and recipient of blood be considered compatible?
- A. If there is no change in the blood color when both samples are mixed in the laboratory
- B. If there are blood clots when both samples are mixed in the laboratory
- C. If there is no clumping or hemolysis when both samples are mixed in the laboratory
- D. If a blood drop does not sink when dropped in water after both samples are mixed in the laboratory
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because compatibility between blood donor and recipient is determined by the absence of clumping or hemolysis when both samples are mixed. Clumping indicates an incompatible blood type reaction, leading to potential harm. Blood clots (option B) are not indicative of compatibility but rather a sign of coagulation issues. Blood color change (option A) and blood drop sinking in water (option D) are not reliable indicators of blood compatibility. In summary, option C is correct as it directly assesses for the absence of a harmful reaction, while the other choices do not accurately determine blood compatibility.
Which of the following is an intraoperative outcome for a patient undergoing an inguinal hernia repair?
- A. Verbalizes fears
- B. Demonstrates leg exercises
- C. Maintains skin integrity
- D. Explains deep breathing exercises
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintains skin integrity. During inguinal hernia repair surgery, maintaining skin integrity is crucial to prevent infection and ensure proper wound healing. This outcome focuses on the physical aspect of the surgery and reflects the patient's skin condition postoperatively. Verbalizing fears (A) addresses emotional concerns, demonstrating leg exercises (B) is related to postoperative rehabilitation, and explaining deep breathing exercises (D) targets respiratory function, none of which directly assess the intraoperative outcome of skin integrity.