Nokea
A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, the nurse should assign highest priority to:
- A. Helping the client cope with body image
- B. Maintaining a patent airway.
- C. Preventing injury.
- D. Ensuring adequate nutrition.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintaining a patent airway. This is the highest priority because the client with esophageal cancer is at risk for airway obstruction due to difficulty swallowing. Maintaining a patent airway ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation, which are vital for the client's survival. Without a clear airway, the client may experience respiratory distress or failure. Body image, preventing injury, and ensuring adequate nutrition are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over maintaining a patent airway in this situation.
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A client in a late stage of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows signs of AIDS-related dementia. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
- A. Self-care deficient: Bathing/hygiene
- B. Dysfunctional grieving
- C. Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion
- D. Risk for injury
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion. In the late stage of AIDS, the client is at risk for neurological complications, including AIDS-related dementia due to decreased blood flow to the brain. This nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority as it directly addresses the client's impaired brain perfusion, which can lead to serious cognitive and functional deficits. Prioritizing this diagnosis ensures timely interventions to optimize cerebral blood flow and prevent further deterioration.
Summary:
A: Self-care deficient: Bathing/hygiene - important but not the highest priority compared to addressing neurological complications.
B: Dysfunctional grieving - while emotional support is essential, it is not the priority when dealing with a life-threatening physiological issue.
D: Risk for injury - while important, it is secondary to addressing the underlying cause of the dementia in this scenario.
Usually, how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided?
- A. Most comfortable walking and moving about
- B. Sleeps for a period of time
- C. Becomes restless and agitated
- D. Say he is thirsty and hungry
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sleeps for a period of time. After a seizure, the brain and body experience fatigue and exhaustion. It is common for the patient to feel drowsy and require rest to recover. This post-ictal state is characterized by sleepiness and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because typically, after a seizure, the patient is not most comfortable walking and moving about (A), does not become restless and agitated (C), and may not immediately express thirst and hunger (D). It is important to ensure the patient is in a safe environment and allow them to rest after a seizure episode.
A post-TURP patient experiences dribbling following removal of his catheter. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Have him restrict fluid intake to 1000 mL/day
- B. Teach him to perform Kegel’s exercises 10 to 20 times per hour
- C. Reinsert the Foley catheter until he regains urinary control
- D. Reassure him that incontinence never lasts more than a few days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach him to perform Kegel's exercises 10 to 20 times per hour. This is the appropriate action because Kegel's exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve urinary control and reduce dribbling post-TURP. Restricting fluid intake (A) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration. Reinserting the Foley catheter (C) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Reassuring the patient (D) without providing any intervention is not addressing the issue. Teaching Kegel's exercises is the most effective and non-invasive approach to manage post-TURP dribbling.
A 45-year-old patient has a long- standing history of allergies to pollen. Which of the following actions indicates that the patient does not understand how to control this disease?
- A. Staying indoors on dry, windy days.
- B. Refusing to walk outside in the spring.
- C. Driving in the care with the windows open.
- D. Working in the garden on sunny days.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Driving in the car with the windows open exposes the patient to pollen, worsening allergies. Staying indoors on dry, windy days (A) reduces exposure. Refusing to walk outside in spring (B) also minimizes exposure. Working in the garden on sunny days (D) increases pollen exposure. Therefore, choice C is the only action that goes against controlling pollen allergies.
The physician orders propranolol (Inderal) for a client's angina. The effect of this drug is to:
- A. Act as a vasoconstrictor
- B. Block beta stimulation in the heart
- C. Act as a vasodilator
- D. Increase the heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in the heart. By doing so, it reduces the heart rate, decreases the force of contraction, and lowers blood pressure, which helps in managing angina. Option A is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor. Option C is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasodilator. Option D is incorrect because propranolol decreases the heart rate rather than increasing it.