Nokea
A client who undergoes a gastric resection is at risk for developing dumping syndrome. Which manifestation should the nurse monitor the client for? Select all that apply.
- A. Pallor
- B. Dizziness
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
- E. Constipation
- F. Extreme thirst
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: Dumping syndrome is the rapid emptying of the gastric contents into the small intestine that occurs after gastric resection. Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating. Manifestations also include vasomotor disturbances such as dizziness, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down.
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An adolescent is admitted to the orthopedic nursing unit after spinal rod insertion for the treatment of scoliosis. Which assessments are most important in the immediate postoperative period when considering the client's neurovascular status? Select all that apply.
- A. Pain level
- B. Urinary output
- C. Ability to move all extremities
- D. Capillary refill in all extremities
- E. Ability to flex and extend the feet
- F. Ability to detect sensations in all extremities
Correct Answer: C,D,E,F
Rationale: When the spinal column is manipulated during surgery, altered neurovascular status is a possible complication; therefore, neurovascular checks, including circulation, sensation, and motion, should be done at least every 2 hours. Level of pain and urinary output are important postoperative assessments, but neurovascular status is more important.
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea, polydipsia, and polyuria. To determine the cause of the client's report, the nurse should assess which client data?
- A. Rectal temperature
- B. Last serum potassium
- C. Capillary blood glucose
- D. Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia related to the increased glucose load of the solution. The symptoms exhibited by the client are consistent with hyperglycemia. The nurse would need to assess the client's blood glucose level to verify these data. The other options would not provide any information that would correlate with the client's symptoms.
The nurse is preparing to initiate an intravenous nitroglycerin drip on a client who has experienced an acute myocardial infarction. In the absence of an invasive (arterial) monitoring line, the nurse prepares to have which piece of equipment for use at the bedside to help assure the client's safety?
- A. Defibrillator
- B. Pulse oximeter
- C. Central venous pressure (CVP) tray
- D. Noninvasive blood pressure monitor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nitroglycerin dilates arteries and veins (vasodilator), causing peripheral blood pooling, thus reducing preload, afterload, and myocardial workload. This action accounts for the primary side effect of nitroglycerin, which is hypotension. In the absence of an arterial monitoring line, the nurse should have a noninvasive blood pressure monitor for use at the bedside.
The nurse sends a sputum specimen to the laboratory for culture from a client with suspected active tuberculosis (TB). The results report that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is cultured. How should the nurse correctly analyze these results?
- A. The results are positive for active tuberculosis.
- B. The results indicate a less virulent strain of tuberculosis.
- C. The results are inconclusive until a repeat sputum specimen is sent.
- D. The results are unreliable unless the client has also had a positive tuberculin skin test (TST).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Culture of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from sputum or other body secretions or tissue confirms the diagnosis of active tuberculosis.
A child diagnosed with rheumatic fever is admitted to the hospital. The nurse prepares to manage which clinical manifestations of this disorder? Select all that apply.
- A. Cardiac murmur
- B. Cardiac enlargement
- C. Cool pale skin over the joints
- D. White painful skin lesions on the trunk
- E. Small nontender lumps on bony prominences
- F. Purposeless jerky movements of the extremities and face
Correct Answer: A,B,E,F
Rationale: Rheumatic fever is a systemic inflammatory disease that may develop as a delayed reaction to an inadequately treated infection of the upper respiratory tract by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. Clinical manifestations of rheumatic fever are related to the inflammatory response. Major manifestations include carditis manifested as inflammation of the endocardium, including the valves, myocardium, and pericardium; cardiac murmur and cardiac enlargement; subcutaneous nodules, manifested as small nontender lumps on joints and bony prominences; chorea, manifested as involuntary, purposeless jerky movements of the legs, arms, and face with speech impairment; arthritis manifested as tender, warm erythematous skin over the joints; and erythema marginatum, manifested as red, painless skin lesions usually over the trunk.